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The Law, works and keeping his comandments

Jethro Bodine said:
I made it about as plain and clear as it can be made that you are going down a meaningless rabbit trail. Who had to keep the literal way of the first covenant has NOTHING to do with what I'm putting forth here. NOTHING!
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Gentiles were never under the law of Moses then, and they certainly are not under the law of Moses today.

All discussions of the New Testament will proceed as such.

The Law of Moses is a whole complete law that can not be dissected.

JLB
 
reba said:
gentiles are heathens
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Who was the law of Moses made for -

9Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless anddisobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, forunholy and profane, for murderers of fathersand murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 1 Timothy 1:9
 
reba said:
lol lol really ? Who was the law of Moses made for -
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Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, forunholy and profane, for murderers of fathersand murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 1 Timothy 1:9

and again -

19 What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. Galatians 3:19
 
Jesus fulfilled all of God's laws, including ALL the Law of Moses. There is no question about that.

I believe that Jesus fulfilled the Law of Moses, which included all God's original laws, during His life time as a man.

If JLB can't show you, then I'll positive I can't.

Blessings
 
JLB said:
Gentiles were never under the law of Moses then, and they certainly are not under the law of Moses today.

All discussions of the New Testament will proceed as such.
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Answer my question and you'll see how completely irrelevant this is to what Paul says, that faith in Christ and obedience according to the fruit of the Spirit fulfills the law of Moses...even if you're 'under' the law or not (as you mean being 'under' the law).

Are you going to answer my question that I asked in post 340?



JLB said:
The Law of Moses is a whole complete law that can not be dissected.

JLB
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...only if you're trying to be justified by the law of Moses. Read your Bible.:bible

This is obvious when you consider that Hebrews teaches the fulfillment of the Day of Atonement in the law of Moses, but the end of the way it was to be observed in the law of Moses. If this is not a 'dissecting' of the law of Moses, what is, JLB?
 
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Deborah13 said:
Jesus fulfilled all of God's laws, including ALL the Law of Moses. There is no question about that.

I believe that Jesus fulfilled the Law of Moses, which included all God's original laws, during His life time as a man.
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True.

Now, how do you apply that fulfillment to your account?

You know the answer. The answer is obvious. And it's what I've been saying all along, but which you and JLB, along with many others steeped in the indoctrination of the church, can not 'hear'.
 
JLB said:
Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, forunholy and profane, for murderers of fathersand murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 1 Timothy 1:9

and again -

19 What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. Galatians 3:19
Click to expand...

IOW, the law was given to ALL sinners, gentile and Jewish alike. But you say this is not true.

Are only the Jews 'not righteous' that only they should be 'under' the law as you mean that?
 
reba said:
Sounds like your saying the Israelites were gentiles
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Which is exactly the point Paul makes in Romans 2. Jew and gentile alike are all under the condemnation of the law.

But somehow JLB sees Paul saying in that passage that 'under the law' means having to obey it, and that only Jews are 'under the law' in regard to that definition. And I never got, or did not understand, his answer to why the Jews have to keep the law in this New Covenant while gentiles don't (because he says they never had to), but then turn right around and quote scripture that explains that everyone 'under' the law as he defines that (that is, keeping it) are cursed and cut off from Christ. Very inconsistent and confusing doctrine.
 
Jethro Bodine said:
I made it about as plain and clear as it can be made that you are going down a meaningless rabbit trail. Who had to keep the literal way of the first covenant has NOTHING to do with what I'm putting forth here. NOTHING!

Now please answer the question I asked of you in my last post (#338) and let's get to the point of what I've been saying here:

I insist you answer this question:

When Cyrus, or Nebuchadnezzar, had faith in God and that faith translated into the obedience of the fruit of the Spirit, did they or did they not uphold the requirements of God found in the law of Moses?

Paul says faith and obedience DOES uphold the requirements of the law. What difference does it make if the person having faith and obeying according to the fruit of the Spirit is Jewish or gentile? Does a gentile's love, or patience, or kindness not uphold the law of Moses, but a Jew's love, or patience, or kindness does? You'll have to explain this to us for us to give any more time to this contention you're bringing into the discussion. If a Jew's fruit of the Spirit fulfills ALL the law of Moses, why would a gentile's fruit of the Spirit not fulfill all of the law of Moses?

Probably what you need to do is start addressing Paul's statements about the fruit of the Spirit fulfilling ALL the law of Moses. Because your argument is with him and what he says, not me. I'm simply passing it along.
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When Cyrus, or Nebuchadnezzar, had faith in God and that faith translated into the obedience of the fruit of the Spirit, did they or did they not uphold the requirements of God found in the law of Moses?
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translated into the obedience of the fruit of the Spirit?

No such thing as faith in God "translating" into the fruit of the Spirit.

Sorry brother, you yourself know that a person can have faith in what the Man Jesus Christ did on the cross, yet still walk in the flesh.

That is why Paul warned the Galatian Christian believers to avoid this very thing.

The fruit of the Spirit is a literal manifestation of the nature of God expressed through a persons life as Love. joy, peace, longsuffering, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, self-control.

Moses law is literal requirements for those who break Gods Law to sacrifice a specific animal, or keep a certain feast day, or Sabbaths, as well as punishing by death those who violate the literal Sabbath by picking up sticks, or stoning a rebellious son, journeying to Jerusalem each year to keep certain feasts, ceremonial washings for a select few who are from a literal physical tribe of Levi, in addition the law of Moses requires a certain incense to be burned in the tabernacle, which is punishable by death if violated, not to mention specific food laws...

That and more is what is known as Moses Law.

The answer is NO!

Now if you ask me, does faith in God to walk with Him in obedience, satisfy the requirements of His moral righteous laws, and precepts, and judgments and commandments, as seen in Moses law, then I would say Yes.

Moses Law has to do with all the literal requirements of that law.

Moses law is not of faith.


But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, 23 gentleness, self-control. Against such there is no law.













 
Jethro Bodine said:
Which is exactly the point Paul makes in Romans 2. Jew and gentile alike are all under the condemnation of the law.

But somehow JLB sees Paul saying in that passage that 'under the law' means having to obey it, and that only Jews are 'under the law' in regard to that definition. And I never got, or did not understand, his answer to why the Jews have to keep the law in this New Covenant while gentiles don't (because he says they never had to), but then turn right around and quote scripture that explains that everyone 'under' the law as he defines that (that is, keeping it) are cursed and cut off from Christ. Very inconsistent and confusing doctrine.
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but then turn right around and quote scripture that explains that everyone 'under' the law as he defines that (that is, keeping it) are cursed and cut off from Christ.
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Please show the post where I said that those who keep the law are cut off from Christ.


JLB
 
JLB said:
translated into the obedience of the fruit of the Spirit?

No such thing as faith in God "translating" into the fruit of the Spirit.
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(Okay, it's clear you can't overcome the indoctrination that you've been taught about the law. But I like this subject anyway, so I'll just chime in about the law.)

"...faith expressing itself through love." (Galatians 5:6 NIV)

No such thing? I see Paul plainly speaking about faith finding it's expression in the fruit of the Spirit. But you probably want to argue with him, right?

For purely forum entertainment purposes, what is it that you disagree with Paul about intangible faith in Christ being translated into actual behavioral obedience? No such thing? Really? I'm pretty sure you're one of those, along with me, who insists that faith MUST do this for that faith to save a person.
 
Jethro Bodine said:
True.

Now, how do you apply that fulfillment to your account?

You know the answer. The answer is obvious. And it's what I've been saying all along, but which you and JLB, along with many others steeped in the indoctrination of the church, can not 'hear'.
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What do you mean by "your account"?
Scripture would be helpful here I think.
 
Jethro Bodine said:
IOW, the law was given to ALL sinners, gentile and Jewish alike. But you say this is not true.

Are only the Jews 'not righteous' that only they should be 'under' the law as you mean that?
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No scripture.
 
JLB said:
Please show the post where I said that those who keep the law are cut off from Christ.

JLB
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Now I asked you to stop misquoting me and saying things I have not said.

Now your doing it again.


JLB
 
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