Jethro Bodine
Member
Okay, in this example, does the law of Moses get upheld when we believe and obey, or not?7 Therefore purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, since you truly are unleavened. For indeed Christ, our Passover, was sacrificed for us. 8 Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, nor with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth. 1 Corinthians 5:7-8
As I said , Christ fulfilled the Passover. He was indeed sacrificed for us. We are to live a life that is without sin, free from malice and wickedness, with sincerity and truth, as Abraham did.
The Truth is these are God's Laws that Abraham walked in, 430 years before the law of Moses.
Simple question.
If you say 'no'...good grief, how can you say no?
If you say 'yes', then you can begin to see what I'm saying.
But for some reason faith upholds them before the law, but not after????The Truth is Gods Laws were seen, made manifest, brought to light, and made known through the law of Moses. These laws were always in the earth from Adam until Moses.
Yes, that is the WAY of the law of Moses. That is what 'vanished away', not the requirements of the law of Moses that even you acknowledge existed before Mt. Sinai.What was also in the law of Moses were sacrifices of animals, special feast days, food laws, special Sabbath requirements, special priesthood requirements, as well as laws for putting to death those that violated.
How does Paul say the Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread requirements get fulfilled in this New Covenant? You know the answer. Just say it! But you insist that faith does not, and doesn't have to, uphold the law of Moses? How can you say that?The whole law of Moses incorporated these law and ordinances.
We can not separate the one from the other, unless the whole law has been changed and set aside.
The things in the law that point us to a righteous lifestyle, we are to take heed to, though the whole law was added until Christ, and has been fulfilled by Him and has been set aside and has vanished away.
But, sadly, your interpretation of 'apart from the law' is not supported by the text you're quoting that from.However, when someone has a nature that does the things in the law, without ever been instructed in the law, they show that they themselves are a law unto themselves, NOT BEING UNDER THE LAW, but having the nature of God and His Laws written in their mind and on their heart, they in fact are walking in a righteousness APART FROM THE LAW.
APART FROM THE LAW.
JLB
Apart from the law does not mean 'without the written knowledge of the law' in the passages you're quoting. They really don't. Check it out.