The true teachings of Jesus

[keiw1]

Almost all translations have "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." The Amplified Bible has "In the beginning [before all time] was the Word (Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself." The NET has "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was fully God." The Orthodox Jewish Bible has " and the Dvar Hashem was nothing less, by nature, than Elohim!"

The overwhelming evidence is contrary to your interpretation.

Trinity translations have God in the last line. The scholars knows its fact the post i put up. The word would have been called Ho Theos if he was being called The God.

 

[keiw1]

And Jesus is referred to as ho theos in Matt 1:23 and also directly called ho theos by Thomas in John 20:28.


What was this Greek scholar's name?

His name was Kneeland. Only in trinity translation is Ho Theos at those 2 spots you mentioned if it is. Because if Jesus was HoTheos that would have been in the last line at John 1:1 as well but it wasnt.

 

[keiw1]

My friend, Paul is using "subjection" not in a way that means "lower than, less than, or beneath." He's using it in relation to the resurrection of the dead.

He reigned in mercy over sinners who hated him and reigns in us the same way,

For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. vs.25

When the bodily resurrection occurs, death is no more,

The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.....So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. vss.26,54

So our change, transformation, glorification, is the "subjection" Paul is speaking about.

He's saying we'll see Jesus "subjected" to God. That is, glorified as God.

It's very difficult to see the truth of what Paul means when we've been indoctrinated with false teaching. Look at it like you're reading it for thr first time with no preconceived notions. Look at the context of the whole chapter, which is the resurrection,

It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised inpower: vs.43

Subjection has 1 meaning--a slave like the rest of us. Jesus teaching proves it-John 20:17, John 5:30

 

[journeymanisnothing]

Subjection has 1 meaning--a slave like the rest of us.

I simply asked you to look at the surrounding verses. When people cite scripture, it's important to know the subject.

Jesus teaching proves it-John 20:17, John 5:30

In Jn.5:30 our Lord said,

I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Our Savior said this because he healed on the Sabbath and the religious leaders wanted to kill him. in other words, He's doing his Father will, because his Father works 24/7.

In Jn.20:17, Jesus tells Mary he's ascending to his God because while on earth, he made himself of no reputation. That tells me, I need a lot more humility.

 

[Free]

His name was Kneeland.

Abner Kneeland?

Only in trinity translation is Ho Theos at those 2 spots you mentioned if it is.

No. I previously provided you with the links, and can do so again, where the Watchtower’s own interlinear translation shows that ho theos is used of Jesus on those two verses.

Because if Jesus was HoTheos that would have been in the last line at John 1:1 as well but it wasnt.

Not at all. If John had used ho theos at the end of John 1:1, then God and Word would have been interchangeable. So he couldn’t use that because that wouldn’t be true. The lack of the article makes it a qualitative statement about the Word and so speaks to the nature or essence of the Word, that is, it is divinity Being that the only divine being is God, the Word is God.

Remember, if it is “a god,” then that would be bi-theism and opens the door for polytheism. But that would contradict the Bible.

 

[keiw1]

I simply asked you to look at the surrounding verses. When people cite scripture, it's important to know the subject.

In Jn.5:30 our Lord said,

I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Our Savior said this because he healed on the Sabbath and the religious leaders wanted to kill him. in other words, He's doing his Father will, because his Father works 24/7.

In Jn.20:17, Jesus tells Mary he's ascending to his God because while on earth, he made himself of no reputation. That tells me, I need a lot more humility.

Jesus healed on the sabbath to show that doing good on the sabbath is ok. They were under law not to do any work on the sabbath. God rested on the 7th day. But that wouldnt stop him from doing good. The Israelite spiritual teachers were taking it to far as they did in many things.
Here back in heaven as a spirit at Gods right hand( not his own right hand) he stresses 4 x in a single paragraph that he has a God. Rev 3:12

God is king of eternity. Jesus had to be appointed king( Daniel 7:13-15) If he were God was already king, but that proves he is not God.

 

[keiw1]

Abner Kneeland?


No. I previously provided you with the links, and can do so again, where the Watchtower’s own interlinear translation shows that ho theos is used of Jesus on those two verses.


Not at all. If John had used ho theos at the end of John 1:1, then God and Word would have been interchangeable. So he couldn’t use that because that wouldn’t be true. The lack of the article makes it a qualitative statement about the Word and so speaks to the nature or essence of the Word, that is, it is divinity Being that the only divine being is God, the Word is God.

Remember, if it is “a god,” then that would be bi-theism and opens the door for polytheism. But that would contradict the Bible.

Only in your twisted thinking. I showed you--If the word was God, then in plain english the second line reads--and God was with God--impossible since there is one God. I told you small g god is not calling that one the true God. Because satan is called Theos at 2 Cor 4:4, he is not God. And the translating rule goes for both spots without fail-a god is correct at John 1:1

 

[JLB]

Every Hebrew scholar on earth will tell you Elohim is not plural for the true living God in their Hebrew written

Every Hebrew scholar on earth will tell you Elohim is not plural for the true living God in their Hebrew written OT, only for false trinity gods served back then and now.
Yes Honorthe son, not worship him. Jesus warned all of you about your false Gods at John 4:22-24 then told all creation--the true followers will worship the Father in spirit and truth---Not Father, son and holy spirit. Paul told all the same at 1 Cor 8:5-6--warned of the false gods then named only the Father as the true God.

If you believe Jesus is a false God then that is between you and the Lord.

Please each of the scriptures I gave in post number 57.

Trying to explain scripture away with some comment about some Jewish scholars is comical.





JLB

 

[JLB]

It helps to know JW teaching when your dealing with one of them.

I'm versed in JW teaching.

Apparently he doesn't believe nor understand scripture.

Not surprising.



JLB

 

[jaybo]

Only in your twisted thinking. I showed you--If the word was God, then in plain english the second line reads--and God was with God--impossible since there is one God. I told you small g god is not calling that one the true God. Because satan is called Theos at 2 Cor 4:4, he is not God. And the translating rule goes for both spots without fail-a god is correct at John 1:1

It is tragic that you don't understand (or won't understand) that Jesus (the son) and God (the father) are one. Even thought they are different "people" they are one is Spirit (as is the Holy Spirit and those of us who have received the Holy Spirit).

Jesus clearly stated in John 10:30, "The Father and I are one.”

Perhaps this will make it clearer for you: John 17:20-21, " “I am not praying only on their behalf, but also on behalf of those who believe in me through their testimony that they will all be one, just as you, Father, are in me and I am in you. I pray that they will be in us, so that the world will believe that you sent me."

It would be nice if you understood Scripture more clearly. How about understanding this? Jesus said in John 8:41, "You people are doing the deeds of your father.” Then they said to Jesus, “We were not born as a result of immorality! We have only one Father, God himself.” What is your explanation of this verse?

Obviously, it requires understanding to interpret Scripture correctly, which you apparently lack.

How about explaining this? Matthew 19:3-6, "Then some Pharisees came to him in order to test him. They asked, “Is it lawful to divorce a wife for any cause?” He answered, “Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator made them male and female, and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and will be united with his wife, and the two will become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” How can two separate people, male and female, be "one flesh"?

 

[Free]

I showed you--If the word was God, then in plain english the second line reads--and God was with God

No, the English is "He was with God." There is no second theos.

--impossible since there is one God.

Of course there is only one God. That is monotheism and one of the foundations of the doctrine of the Trinity.

I told you small g god is not calling that one the true God. Because satan is called Theos at 2 Cor 4:4, he is not God. And the translating rule goes for both spots without fail-a god is correct at John 1:1

Well, it isn't calling the Word "a god" because that means there is another class of gods, but that is polytheism. That Satan is called "the god of this age," means that unbelievers worship and serve him. What is interesting here, though, is that even in 2 Cor 4:4, Satan is referred to as ho theos.

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/2-corinthians/4/
in which ones the god of the age
ἐν οἷς ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος

As for Jesus:

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/matthew/1/
Matthew 1:23:
Look! The virgin in belly will have and will give birth to son, and they will call the name of him Immanuel;
Ἰδοὺ ἡ παρθένος ἐν γαστρὶ ἕξει καὶ τέξεται υἱόν, καὶ καλέσουσιν τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ ᾿Εμμανουήλ·
which is being translated With us the God.
ὅ ἐστιν μεθερμηνευόμενον Μεθ’ ἡμῶν ὁ Θεός.

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/john/20/
John 20:28:
Answered Thomas and he said to him The Lord of me and the God of me!
ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου.

So, the Watchtower's Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures not only calls Jesus ho theos, it calls Satan that as well. There goes your argument that ho theos is only ever used of the one true God. In fact, if, as you say, the same translating rules apply, then either the Father, the Son, and Satan are all the one true God, or none are and they are all gods.

 

[journeymanisnothing]

Jesus healed on the sabbath to show that doing good on the sabbath is ok. They were under law not to do any work on the sabbath. God rested on the 7th day. But that wouldnt stop him from doing good. The Israelite spiritual teachers were taking it to far as they did in many things.
Here back in heaven as a spirit at Gods right hand( not his own right hand) he stresses 4 x in a single paragraph that he has a God. Rev 3:12

God is king of eternity. Jesus had to be appointed king( Daniel 7:13-15) If he were God was already king, but that proves he is not God.

Well, that does it for all glory going to God!
But seriously, Dan.7.13-15 and Rev.3:12 show us the Person mankind honors as One of themselves and although he had every right to be worshipped when he appeared, chose not to,

For who is greater, the one who is at the table or the one who serves? Is it not the one who is at the table? But I am among you as one who serves. Lk.22:7

The "right hand " is the strength of that Person. If not, here's a problem,

I keep my eyes always on the LORD. With him at my right hand, I will not be shaken. Psa.16:8

Btw keiw1,
Do you know what God thought about Israel wanting a human King?

 

[Edward]

Revelation is about these last days. All have been watching it occur. But Jesus warned all that these last days would be as Noahs day( over 99% mislead) and said the world took no note. Luke 17:26

I'll be watching for giants again too. Prolly a good idea just in case.

If they do show up, I bet that heavy catridges will do better on them than 223's, lol.

But what's a giant? 30 ft tall? 100 ft tall?

 

[Consecrated Life]

The teachings of Jesus who many claim to serve, found in every translation on earth. Its a 100% guarantee the teachers who have Jesus teach exactly what he taught.


Again i say its 100% fact-The real teachers that have Jesus teach exactly what he taught.

All of what Jesus " taught " us is of value to us in this increasingly disturbed age .
But it is our affirmative response to what Jesus asks of us that makes us citizens of His Kingdom.

Jhn 21:15
So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me....."

 

[keiw1]

If you believe Jesus is a false God then that is between you and the Lord.

Please each of the scriptures I gave in post number 57.

Trying to explain scripture away with some comment about some Jewish scholars is comical.





JLB

Jesus isnt God. The capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1 is error. The Greek lexicons prove it. 2 spots in NT where the true God and 1 spot Jesus 1 Spot satan-John 1:1, 2 Cor 4:4-- the translating rule is the same at both spots--The true God is called Ho Theos, both Jesus and Satan are called plain Theos, clearly showing neither is being called the true God. Small g god belongs in both spots. That is why the difference is there.
In 1822 a Greek scholar named- A.Kneeland translated the NT and compared the Greek to English side by side to prove a god is correct in the last line at John 1:1, 18 other translations had it correct. All of them rejected by trinity clergy because truth exposes them as false religion.

 

[keiw1]

It is tragic that you don't understand (or won't understand) that Jesus (the son) and God (the father) are one. Even thought they are different "people" they are one is Spirit (as is the Holy Spirit and those of us who have received the Holy Spirit).

Jesus clearly stated in John 10:30, "The Father and I are one.”

Perhaps this will make it clearer for you: John 17:20-21, " “I am not praying only on their behalf, but also on behalf of those who believe in me through their testimony that they will all be one, just as you, Father, are in me and I am in you. I pray that they will be in us, so that the world will believe that you sent me."

It would be nice if you understood Scripture more clearly. How about understanding this? Jesus said in John 8:41, "You people are doing the deeds of your father.” Then they said to Jesus, “We were not born as a result of immorality! We have only one Father, God himself.” What is your explanation of this verse?

Obviously, it requires understanding to interpret Scripture correctly, which you apparently lack.

How about explaining this? Matthew 19:3-6, "Then some Pharisees came to him in order to test him. They asked, “Is it lawful to divorce a wife for any cause?” He answered, “Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator made them male and female, and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and will be united with his wife, and the two will become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” How can two separate people, male and female, be "one flesh"?

They are one in purpose. Jesus also said-The Father is greater than i, proving 1 in purpose is correct. See even you show the Father sent Jesus-correct. At John 17:3 Jesus clearly teaches-The one who sent him = THE ONLY TRUE GOD.
Your translations are altered and contain many errors to fit false council teachings.

 

[keiw1]

No, the English is "He was with God." There is no second theos.


Of course there is only one God. That is monotheism and one of the foundations of the doctrine of the Trinity.


Well, it isn't calling the Word "a god" because that means there is another class of gods, but that is polytheism. That Satan is called "the god of this age," means that unbelievers worship and serve him. What is interesting here, though, is that even in 2 Cor 4:4, Satan is referred to as ho theos.

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/2-corinthians/4/
in which ones the god of the age
ἐν οἷς ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος

As for Jesus:

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/matthew/1/
Matthew 1:23:
Look! The virgin in belly will have and will give birth to son, and they will call the name of him Immanuel;
Ἰδοὺ ἡ παρθένος ἐν γαστρὶ ἕξει καὶ τέξεται υἱόν, καὶ καλέσουσιν τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ ᾿Εμμανουήλ·
which is being translated With us the God.
ὅ ἐστιν μεθερμηνευόμενον Μεθ’ ἡμῶν ὁ Θεός.

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/john/20/
John 20:28:
Answered Thomas and he said to him The Lord of me and the God of me!
ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου.

So, the Watchtower's Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures not only calls Jesus ho theos, it calls Satan that as well. There goes your argument that ho theos is only ever used of the one true God. In fact, if, as you say, the same translating rules apply, then either the Father, the Son, and Satan are all the one true God, or none are and they are all gods.

In the Greek it says--In the beginning the Logos was and the Logos was with HoTheos=(The God,) and the Logos( word) was Theos--- see not Ho Theos as the true God is called. clearly showing the word is not being called The God but a god is 100% correct.

 

[Alfred Persson]

Only in your twisted thinking. I showed you--If the word was God, then in plain english the second line reads--and God was with God--impossible since there is one God. I told you small g god is not calling that one the true God. Because satan is called Theos at 2 Cor 4:4, he is not God. And the translating rule goes for both spots without fail-a god is correct at John 1:1

We don't say there are three Gods, so your argument is non sequitur---a "fallacy of misleading context."

There is only one God, that's why John says the Word was with God and the Word was God. Because he is talking about God the Son, being with God the Father and God the Holy Spirit.

And there is no "translating rule." I challenge you to find one scholar who cites a "translating rule" when translating the Greek text.

 

[keiw1]

Well, that does it for all glory going to God!
But seriously, Dan.7.13-15 and Rev.3:12 show us the Person mankind honors as One of themselves and although he had every right to be worshipped when he appeared, chose not to,

For who is greater, the one who is at the table or the one who serves? Is it not the one who is at the table? But I am among you as one who serves. Lk.22:7

The "right hand " is the strength of that Person. If not, here's a problem,

I keep my eyes always on the LORD. With him at my right hand, I will not be shaken. Psa.16:8

Btw keiw1,
Do you know what God thought about Israel wanting a human King?

Your quote from Psalms actually YHWH belongs there not LORD. By satans will Gods name was removed from the bible, where God put it because he wants his name in every spot he put it. Nearly 7000 places, removed to mislead. And i tell you, all using the altered versions are being mislead into supporting satans will on that matter over Gods will. Every trinity scholar on earth knows its 100% fact.
Jesus wasnt a human king. He didnt get his crown until Rev 6

 

[keiw1]

I'll be watching for giants again too. Prolly a good idea just in case.

If they do show up, I bet that heavy catridges will do better on them than 223's, lol.

But what's a giant? 30 ft tall? 100 ft tall?

Nephlim was translated by some as giants, some said violent ones. The concensus is large, strong and violent. Goliath was over 9 feet tall.