brightfame52
2024 Supporter
I dont discuss myself ! Lets keep this about what the scripture says. And it says men are by nature, dead in sin, without spiritual life.Let me ask you this, how did you personally become Spiritually alive?
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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I dont discuss myself ! Lets keep this about what the scripture says. And it says men are by nature, dead in sin, without spiritual life.Let me ask you this, how did you personally become Spiritually alive?
That what you stated didn't sound scriptural. None of those verses you quote collaborate what you stated.God only chooses those who will come to Him. God did not predestine the man (which individuals would be saved & lost), He predestined the plan (how men would be saved) - read again Acts 10:34-35; Eph. 1:3-12; Rom. 8:28-30; 10:9-17.
Ordain = an outline of all events controlled by God (order or decree)
The divine decree is the eternal and sovereign purpose of the triune God, based upon his will alone according to his incomprehensible wisdom and goodness, that determines all persons, things, events, and relationships outside of himself for his manifest glory in Jesus Christ. Joel Beeke Reformed Systematic Theology
Keeping in mind that both of us don't know where evil comes from ... God knows it will comes and plan for it to come and plan what it will do or how it will be restrained.
Cause = The 'thing' which is the precursor to an effect. Every effect has a cause. God does not CAUSE evil, he does plan for it to happen.
Aside: Perhaps you conception of evil is different than mind. Consider:
Evil is nothing. It is not a thing that has existence. It is an action of something that is a thing. When I do something that is not good, then I am doing something that is evil, but evil then is an activity of some being. It has no being of itself.
I will send you the rest in a CONVERSATION. Don't wish to bore people. You don't have to read it.
Well, we disagreed on whether or not God determines everything. You are a dualist in this matter as you believe man and God determine things... I guess you believe Satan also determines outcomes too.
God has emotions ..... I would say God has emotions but is not emotional. I would say God lacks many emotions man has (He is never surprised, He is never angry (yeah, bible says He is ... I would argue this is a Anthropomorphism (I wish I could spell that ... lol) To say God is emotional is to say He is not immutable ... it is to say sometimes he's happy sometimes He is not. So, I would say he has emotion but not emotional.
I gave you many verses...not just the one about Jesus crying.Re: Jesus wept ... this has to due with the hypostatic union. This is Christ's human nature, not his divine nature.
Clearer example: God knows everything. Christ did not know the timing of his return. Conclusion: Christ is not God ... or Christ has two natures; the divine nature knows when Christ returns, the human nature does not. (same thing with verse saying something about the boy Christ growing in knowledge and wisdom or something like that).
Do you trust the bible or do you trust Ferguson, Chamok, etc??I would God does not hate. The verse is an Anthropomorphism.
Strictly speaking, wrath [hate] is not an attribute of God’s nature, but is his “holy justice against sin”. Joel Beeke Reformed Systematic Theology
If he doth whatsoever he pleaseth, nothing can make him miserable, since misery consists in those things which happen against our will. Stephen Charnock
Strictly speaking, wrath [hate] is not an attribute of God. It would be more appropriate to say that the wrath of God is the manifestation of the holiness of God in the context of sinfulness of man. So, within the trinitarian fellowship that holiness is expressed amongst the members of the trinity but not wrath. Sinclair Ferguson
In the Bible, hatred is not an emotion primarily, but rather a covenant action to disfavor. Gotquestions.org
Job 35:7 “If you are righteous, what do you give God, Or what does He receive from your hand? 8 “Your wickedness affects only a man such as you, And your righteousness affects only a son of man [but it cannot affect God, who is sovereign]”
Same answer as "hate".
If by 'jealous you mean "feeling or showing envy of someone or their achievements and advantages", I don't agree.
The word world may mean what you think it means and it may mean other things as I pointed out. Again, one must use explicit verses to validate the meaning of implicit words like: ALL, EVERYONE, ANYONE, WORLD.
You agree that WORLD has different meanings, but you have not used other verses to validate your conclusion of John 3:16.
That being said. Let's assume WORLD means everyone without exception.
The verse simple says whoever believes will have ever lasting life. There is nothing in the verse telling us why one believes. I say because God caused us to believe and you say your 'free will' (which you have yet to define) caused us to believe.
So the verse, if expounded upon by the writer, could be:
My way:
For God so loved the world that he gave his only son that whosoever believed [due to God causing him to believe] will not perish ....
Your way:
For God so love the world that he gave his only son that whosoever believed [as a result of their "free will"] will not perish ....
You must seek the answer to the question of the cause of your faith elsewhere than John 3:16 IMO
This is factually incorrect if by everywhere you mean every people on the planet. This is why I caution against the biased interpretation of WORLD, ALL, EVERYWHERE, EVERYONE, ANYONE. (Maybe we have a semantic issue)
Already caught and handled.I think this was either misread by you are I didn't write comprehensively. The "AND" was in connection with 1 John 2:2 I believe and not John 3:16. Somewhere you, me or us muddled it up. Let's say it was me.
My point, which you miss, is that Jesus died for EVERYONE.....Well, that is your interpretation or "everyone" and as I mentioned... if that be true His for the most part was in vain.
I did not bring up the verse to promote universalism. I used the verse to demonstrate that the meaning of "ALL" does not necessarily means "everyone without exception" for if it did then we would have a verse promoting universalism which is contrary to both our views.
Already handled.LOL .. I think you are right .. my bad.
Oh geez, there's a Part 2.
You may wear me down so that I become an Arminian due to exhaustion.
(Just teasing ... I admire your defense of your beliefs
How is one made alive first without having faith first? God's grace is through faith, which is Christ Jesus in whom is our faith that all who will first believe in Him will have eternal life.You putting the cart before the horse. A spiritually dead person has no spiritual life, Faith is a Spiritual grace. Once a person is made alive first, given Spiritual life, then he can have faith.
You cannot define a word by using that word. Example: Love is love. That's begs the question.And just because one uses the word does not cause circular logic...I gave enough meaning.
I don't know what you think. I asked for a definition of love and you responded with:Do you think I think God has to sacrifice something to show love?
English, words, a dictionary, scripture are necessary tools for communication.Could we stop with the English lessons?
You said "MERCY" means: to have compassion on someoneGod is compassionate...God is merciful
THIS is all we should be discussing ...
John 3:16 is not an example of Justice. It is an example of mercy. How is God saving something due to faith defined as Justice? Are you saying YOU DESERVE TO BE SAVED, that you earned it by having faith.Justice:
That WHOEVER believes in the Son will be saved. John 3:16
This is untrue. A baby has a 100% chance to be saved. An adult does not. This is clearly not the "same opportunity".The baby has not had the opportunity to come to believe and have faith in God.
God is just.
Everyone has the same opportunity to be saved. Romans 1:19-20
This is not your entire belief. You believe one does not need to hear the gospel to be saved in which case evangelism is of questionable use. In point of fact, if people can be saved without hearing the gospel the consequences of your version of evangelism could be detrimental given the possibility that a higher percentage of those that may not have heard the gospel are saved than have heard the gospel. Effectively you have two gospels salvation:Evangelism has a very effective role due to my theological belief.
Faith comes by HEARING.... Acts 10:42
The first statement is spurious. Again I challenge you to find any Reformed theologian that propagates this falsehood. You've ignored similar challenges when you have assigned false doctrine to those that are reformed.In Calvinism, God picks and chooses those that will be saved based on NOTHING AT ALL.
If YOU know on what God bases His choice...please state it.
This is an empirically false statement. Those who have not heard the gospel don't "know HOW". As your premise is false, any conclusion based on that premise has no support in your argument.If we are to be saved, we MUST know HOW since God is a just God and gives to everyone
that ACCEPTS HIS CONDITIONS to be saved.
Again, you only partially answered the question. The question: Give me an example of something God did not cause ... and then tell me what was the cause.You want an example of something God did not cause?
He did not cause Columbine...or anything else like that because that was a very dark event.
Interesting, you understand it very well but when repeatedly asked for a definition and clarification you refused to give it. This is fundamental to your theology and yet you won't define it ... an interesting evasion.Calvinists have a difficult time understanding free will.
Those of us that have free will understand it very well.
Yes, he gives us a choice. But NO ONE SEEKS GOD. So no one takes God up on His offer unless God first regenerates him. John 1:12-13 clearly states no one comes to God on their own as it is outside the will of man. Ephesians 2:8-9 state the source of faith is God.See everywhere Jesus states that IF WE WILL something...
Jesus seems to understand what free will is...He gives US the choice of obeying Him or not.
You were making comment about REFORMED doctrines. When it comes to the beliefs of the REFORMED denomination the Confession is authoritative; not scripture. So when answering questions about REFORMED doctrine one goes to a confession or reformed theologian. Analogy: I want to fix my flat tire. I don't go to scripture, I go to a document that is an authority for the question at hand. Now, if you want to know what God the best source is scripture and this is a REFORMED doctrine.How about quoting scripture instead of the Baptist Confession of Faith or the Westminster Confession of Faith.
You clearly don't understand the nature of evil. It is not a thing and not created. Even God cannot create something that is nothing.A confession of faith could state that God did not create sin, or evil..
BUT
IF God determined everything from the beginning of time...
then EVERYTHING includes sin and evil.
Your numerous statements show you do not understand Calvinism well. When you are confronted with the REFORMED confession that clearly states "God is author of evil" you disregard the clear statement and say REFORMED doctrine doesn't believe what it says it believes. *twilight zone*Thus, I understand calvinism very well and do not agree with it.
That what you stated didn't sound scriptural. None of those verses you quote collaborate what you stated.
One is made alive by the Spirit quickening him or her, then they can have faith, faith is the fruit of the Spirit Gal 5 22How is one made alive first without having faith first? God's grace is through faith, which is Christ Jesus in whom is our faith that all who will first believe in Him will have eternal life.
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Joh 3:17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Acts 10:34-35 .. this refers to Peter and Cornelius ... Peter did not think the Gentiles were in God's plan of salvation and then he 'see the light' so to speak and comes to the conclusion that God salvation is for the Gentiles also.God only chooses those who will come to Him. God did not predestine the man (which individuals would be saved & lost), He predestined the plan (how men would be saved) - read again Acts 10:34-35; Eph. 1:3-12; Rom. 8:28-30; 10:9-17.
Yes, I read your responses and understood why he needed clarification.
O.K. .... I asked gotquestions.org:
Libertarian free will is basically the concept that, metaphysically and morally, man is an autonomous being, one who operates independently, not controlled by others or by outside forces. According to this view, a person who freely made a particular choice could have chosen differently, even if nothing about the past prior to the moment of choice had been different.” In the libertarian free will paradigm, the power of contrary choice reigns supreme. Without this ability to choose otherwise, libertarian free will proponents will claim that man cannot be held morally responsible for his actions.
Man is not unable to choose God. That is just what you've been taught.So basically, Libertarian Free Will denies scripture where it explicitly talks about man's inability to chose God.
- Romans 3:11 No one understands [divine things]; no one seeks for God.
- 1 Corinthians 2:14 The natural [unregenerate] person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God [regeneration comes from the Spirit of God], for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually [the Holy Spirit] discerned.
- John 3:20 For everyone practicing evil hates the light and does not come to the light
- Romans 7:18 For I know that nothing good dwells within me, that is, in my flesh. I can will what is right, but I cannot perform it.
- Romans 8:7 For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot.
Again, find me any quote by a reformed theologian to valid this false claim. You said John MacArthur claims God causes evil ... I say you made a false claim. PROVE IT!
I quoted a Reformed confession (the most authoritative source possible of Reform doctrine) for you stating the GOD IS NOT THE AUTHOR OF SIN, yet you won't stop stating this slander.
Again, you don't understand reform doctrine in this area either. I grant that this is easily misunderstood.
I refer you to https://r.search.yahoo.com/_ylt=AwrC3TRjYdVfr0AA2hIPxQt.;_ylu=Y29sbwNiZjEEcG9zAzIEdnRpZAMEc2VjA3Ny/RV=2/RE=1607848419/RO=10/RU=https://www.monergism.com/thethreshold/sdg/Double-Predestination.pdf/RK=2/RS=wMn7MFVXq5bvjPmy17HUgnYNihA-
to read about "The Double-Predestination Distortion" by R.C. Sproul
It is one thing to disagree with another thoughts, it is quite another to misrepresent them repeatedly.
Perhaps YOU are unable to comprehend that if God picks who will go to heaven.I have. You are misinformed or not able to comprehend. I understand how one could be confused. Read the article.
Not relevant in my opinion. Man by nature is spiritually dead in sin Eph 2:1,5
Same old chestnut. I've explained it numerous times. I will keep it simple.If all events are controlled by God, as you've explained above.
Then God causes all to happen.
If , as you've stated, God plans for evil to happen...then God causes evil to happen.
Agreed. I said 'evil' is not a thing. What's your point?Evil is real. Satan is the personification of evil.
First statement is false. Example: I slap the policeman. This is NOT GOOD, yet it is not neutral.When you do something that is not good....you are neutral.
When you do something to cause harm...this is evil.
So sleeping, which I assume is neutral, is not allowed?When you become Christian you not only have to stop doing evil...
THAT is neutrality....
You must begin to do good.
Well, that is an example of dualism. The dictionary says:You use the word DUALIST incorrectly.
DUALIST means that one believes in a good god and a bad god. Two gods of equal power.
... whereas I say I do good works by the power of God. John 15:5 ; 1 Corinthians 4:7 ; Ephesians 2:10 ...I do the good works He calls on me to do.
I said God has emotion but is not emotional. If God is happy one minute and not the next then He has changed and this contradicts His immutability.God showing emotion does NOT mean he changes.
Are you saying God can change in other ways?A change in God is referring to a MORAL CHANGE.
God cannot change morally....He is faithful to Himself and His attributes.
FastfredyReformed thinking of Double Predestination - R.C. Sproul
What Double Predestination is: We can call this a positive-positive view of predestination. This is, God positively and actively intervenes in the lives of the elect to bring them to salvation. In the same way God positively and actively intervenes in the life of the reprobate to bring him to sin.
This distortion of positive-positive predestination clearly makes God the author of sin who punishes a person for doing what God monergistically and irresistibly coerces man to do. Such a view is indeed a monstrous assault on the integrity of God. wondering This is not the Reformed view of predestination, but a gross and inexcusable caricature of the doctrine. Such a view may be identified with what is often loosely described as hyper-Calvinism and involves a radical form of supralapsarianism. Such a view of predestination has been virtually universally and monolithically rejected by Reformed thinkers.
The Reformed View of Predestination
In sharp contrast to the caricature of double predestination seen in the positive-positive schema is the classic position of Reformed theology on predestination. In this view predestination is double in that it involves both election and reprobation but is not symmetrical with respect to the mode of divine activity. A strict parallelism of operation is denied. Rather we view predestination in terms of a positive-negative relationship.
In the Reformed view God from all eternity decrees some to election and positively intervenes in their lives to work regeneration and faith by a monergistic work of grace. To the non-elect God withholds this monergistic work of grace, passing them by and leaving them to themselves. He does not monergistically work sin or unbelief in their lives. Even in the case of the “hardening” of the sinners’ already recalcitrant hearts, God does not, as Luther stated, “work evil in us (for hardening is working evil) by creating fresh evil in us.”
Luther continued: When men hear us say that God works both good and evil in us, and that we are subject to God’s working by mere passive necessity, they seem to imagine a man who is in himself good, and not evil, having an evil work wrought in him by God; for they do not sufficiently bear in mind how incessantly active God is in all His creatures, allowing none of them to keep holiday. He who would understand these matters, however, should think thus: God works evil in us (that is, by means of us) not through God’s own fault, but by reason of our own defect. We being evil by nature, and God being good, when He impels us to act by His own acting upon us according to the nature of His omnipotence, good though He is in Himself, He cannot but do evil by our evil instrumentality; although, according to His wisdom, He makes good use of this evil for His own glory and for our salvation.
Thus, the mode of operation in the lives of the elect is not parallel with that operation in the lives of the reprobate. God works regeneration monergistically but never sin. Sin falls within the category of providential concurrence.
Another significant difference between the activity of God with respect to the elect and the reprobate concerns God’s justice. The decree and fulfillment of election provide mercy for the elect while the efficacy of reprobation provides justice for the reprobate. God shows mercy sovereignly and unconditionally to some, and gives justice to those passed over in election. That is to say, God grants the mercy of election to some and justice to others. No one is the victim of injustice. To fail to receive mercy is not to be treated unjustly. God is under no obligation to grant mercy to all—in fact He is under no obligation to grant mercy to any. He says, “I will have mercy upon whom I will have mercy” (Rom. 9). The divine prerogative to grant mercy voluntarily cannot be faulted. If God is required by some cosmic law apart from Himself to be merciful to all men, then we would have to conclude that justice demands mercy. If that is so, then mercy is no longer voluntary, but required. If mercy is required, it is no longer mercy, but justice. What God does not do is sin by visiting injustice upon the reprobate. Only by considering election and reprobation as being asymmetrical in terms of a positive-negative schema can God be exonerated from injustice.
Aside: The Reformed doctrine of Single Predestination is not easily grasped.
Are you able to wake up in the morning?Nothing a dead person can do. He needs life to be able to do something !
What it has to do with being spiritually dead is this:What does this have to do with man being spiritually dead ?
Sorry, didn't understand this part. I will try a different tact. Are you saying that the divine nature of God cries at times, is tired at times, can die, doesn't know certain things? ... all traits described of JesusI gave you many verses...not just the one about Jesus crying.
Which, BTW, if calvinism is right, it shows that Jesus is a foolish person/God.
Did God the Father forget to advise Him that HE, GOD FATHER, determines everything and that HE also determined
Jerusalem would not be willing to go to Jesus?
I trust the Bible as the ultimate source of truth. I don't necessarily trust your interpretation, though I have faith in your integrity and honest efforts to understand truth.Do you trust the bible or do you trust Ferguson, Chamok, etc??
I trust what the bible tells me. If it states that God gets mad...I believe it.
If it tells me that God is a jealous God...I believe it.
God is not jealous in the sense of the dictionary definition: feeling or showing envy of someone or their achievements and advantagesAnd, again, do YOU believe God could be jealous of someone's achievment?
Come on FF.
You never did. Rather, you said God loves everyone without exception as stated in John 3:16. I pointed out that you should not come to that conclusion based on John 3:16 alone. I then sited as evidence sited other verses where the word WORLD does not mean everyone without exception.When did I say that WORLD means everyone without exception in every verse?
Again, the word WORLD could have other meanings. You come to that conclusion because it fits you bias. You can't see the word WORLD could be understood in other ways.In the verse of John 3:16 it means that God loved His creation (us), as I've stated many times.
See post #829 .. that is a short list ... long list would have 100+ versesSo show me some verses that show that it's due to GOD CAUSING HIM TO BELIEVE....
WHERE in the bible does it state that God chooses who will be saved and causes them to be saved...
I am almost always ready to clarify.And perhaps YOU would like to explain your type of free will?
Which is not free BTW.
sorry, the context of my previous statement is missing so I can't answerWhat does ALL THE NATIONS and THROUGHOUT THE WHOLE WORLD
mean to YOU??
You cannot define a word by using that word. Example: Love is love. That's begs the question.
I don't know what you think. I asked for a definition of love and you responded with:
Agape” is one of several Greek words for love. When the word “agape” is used in the Bible, it refers to a pure, willful, sacrificial love that intentionally desires another’s highest good."
Then I asked why love had to be sacrificial and now you seem to say it does not. If Love does not have to be "sacrificial", why did you use it in your definition. I seek clarification. What do you mean by agape love must be PURE. Does that means a holy God cannot love that which is unholy?
Yes. Maybe it's time to stop.English, words, a dictionary, scripture are necessary tools for communication.
You said "MERCY" means: to have compassion on someone
You gave a definition that is not in the dictionary. Compassion is not necessarily part of MERCY. I can hate someone and yet have MERCY. We are a problem because the words you are using are being misused IMO.
You said:
AGAPE LOVE must be "sacrificial"
MERCY means compassion
You won't define "FREE WILL". Hospes also asked you to define it and then, your answer lead him to ask for further explanation as it was unclear.
This is making communication difficult.
John 3:16 is not an example of Justice. It is an example of mercy. How is God saving something due to faith defined as Justice? Are you saying YOU DESERVE TO BE SAVED, that you earned it by having faith.
Your definition of justice is: giving a person what he deserves
This is untrue. A baby has a 100% chance to be saved. An adult does not. This is clearly not the "same opportunity".
Please find any commentator that believes people that have not heard the gospel can be saved.
1 Peter 1:20 Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture comes from one’s own interpretation.
No. I do not wish to withdraw the accusation.That reminds me ... Please find a quotation where MacArthur said "God creates evil" that you use to attribute this spurious idea to Calvinists. I've challenged you several times and have not heard a reply. Do you wish to withdraw the accusation?
This is not your entire belief. You believe one does not need to hear the gospel to be saved in which case evangelism is of questionable use. In point of fact, if people can be saved without hearing the gospel the consequences of your version of evangelism could be detrimental given the possibility that a higher percentage of those that may not have heard the gospel are saved than have heard the gospel. Effectively you have two gospels salvation:
This is contrary to Paul: Galatians 1:8
- Faith in Christ's death and resurrection
- Some sort of belief that, if a person believes in a higher power and he is being a good person (something like that) .. he can be saved
A man is presented with the gospel.Your definition Libertians Free Will make evangelism of little use. You said I could use any definition of Libertians Free Will so I use the one on Gotquestions.org ... Libertarian free will is basically the concept that, metaphysically and morally, man is an autonomous being, one who operates independently, not controlled by others or by outside forces.
This being your definition, evangelism is useless from the hearers' point of view as that person one who operates independently, not controlled by others or by outside forces. Evangelism is by definition "an outside force".
evil...since He predestinated everything.
Romans 9:14-24 is not speaking about personal salvation.The first statement is spurious. Again I challenge you to find any Reformed theologian that propagates this falsehood. You've ignored similar challenges when you have assigned false doctrine to those that are reformed.
I don't know why God picks "A" or "B". Read Romans 9:14-24 for your answer when Paul speaks on the issue.
Aside: Possibly a part of God's main purpose: His glory and His pleasure.
This is an empirically false statement. Those who have not heard the gospel don't "know HOW". As your premise is false, any conclusion based on that premise has no support in your argument.
Aside: God defines justice, not you or I. Your propose a holy God loves that which is unholy. (Example: sons of Satan doomed to hell) and using spurious thought, build a false theological system IMO. (Naturally, you think my system is faulty too.)
Where did I get it from?Again, you only partially answered the question. The question: Give me an example of something God did not cause ... and then tell me what was the cause.
You did not give the cause of Columbine ... so your answer was partially unresponsive.
... and so it is with Libertarian Free Will .. there is no cause as there is no such thing in reality ... or perhaps you can tell me the ontological cause of Libertarian Free Will (where did you get it from?)
No one seeks God?Interesting, you understand it very well but when repeatedly asked for a definition and clarification you refused to give it. This is fundamental to your theology and yet you won't define it ... an interesting evasion.
Yes, he gives us a choice. But NO ONE SEEKS GOD. So no one takes God up on His offer unless God first regenerates him. John 1:12-13 clearly states no one comes to God on their own as it is outside the will of man. Ephesians 2:8-9 state the source of faith is God.
You were making comment about REFORMED doctrines. When it comes to the beliefs of the REFORMED denomination the Confession is authoritative; not scripture. So when answering questions about REFORMED doctrine one goes to a confession or reformed theologian. Analogy: I want to fix my flat tire. I don't go to scripture, I go to a document that is an authority for the question at hand. Now, if you want to know what God the best source is scripture and this is a REFORMED doctrine.
YOU are the one saying God is not the author of evil in calvinism.You clearly don't understand the nature of evil. It is not a thing and not created. Even God cannot create something that is nothing.
Your numerous statements show you do not understand Calvinism well. When you are confronted with the REFORMED confession that clearly states "God is author of evil" you disregard the clear statement and say REFORMED doctrine doesn't believe what it says it believes. *twilight zone*
Part 1 of 2
Agreed, it is not theology 101.The entire above is not easily grasped because it is contradictory and not biblical.
It means those going to heaven got mercy (unmerited favor) and those going to hell got justice (what they deserved)od give mercy to the elect and justice to the reprobate.
What does that mean?????
I t hought God was a just God ...... For all or for no one.
I addressed this with long article.If God is predestinating those that go to heaven...
HE is responsible for those that go to hell THROUGH NO FAULT OF THEIR OWN.
If don't agree. 1 Cor. 2:14 .... Plus verses saying the gospel is foolishness in men's eyes ... to confound the wise (something like that)The gospel is easy enough for the most simple person to understand.
God means it to be simple so that it can be available to everyone.
Well, if that be true I am destined for hell with Allah's worshipers.The calvinist God is a different God....
AWW SEE I BVEEN WAITING FOR THIS REPLY ..this is not my first rodeo ,i just couldn't remember the exact order see romans 12 :3 For I say, through the grace given to me, to everyone who is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think, but to think soberly, as God has dealt to each one a measure of faith.. Faith is there heck i had faith in who christ was and what he could do for years. i rejected it over the pleasures of sin for a season might i also add i was trying to get you to bring this up. its what you been implying along. Faith is a gift from God and with out faith it is impossible to please God by faith hebrews 11You putting the cart before the horse. A spiritually dead person has no spiritual life, Faith is a Spiritual grace. Once a person is made alive first, given Spiritual life, then he can have faith.