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In the end (ὀψέ opse) [which can not, may not, mean "after" the sabbath, but means toward the end or at the ending time of]
of the sabbath, σάββατον sabbaton
as it began to dawn (ἐπιφώσκω epiphōskō) [which can only mean at the first light of the dawn]
toward (εἰς eis) the first (μία mia) day of the week, (σάββατον sabbaton)
came (ἔρχομαι erchomai) Mary (Μαρία Maria)...
28:1 Ὀψὲ "Of-late" δὲ "moreover" σαββάτων, "of-sabbaths" τῇ "unto-the-one" ἐπιφωσκούσῃ "unto-shining-upon" εἰς "into" μίαν "to-one" σαββάτων, "of-sabbaths" ἦλθεν "it-had-came," Μαρία "a-Maria" ἡ "the-one" Μαγδαληνὴ "a-Magdalene" καὶ "and" ἡ "the-one" ἄλλη "other" Μαρία "a-Maria," θεωρῆσαι "to-have-surveiled-unto" τὸν "to-the-one" τάφον. "to-an-interment."
"W&H Transliteration said:Of-late · moreover · of-sabbaths · unto-the-one · unto-shining-upon · into · to-one · of-sabbaths · it-had-came, · a-Maria · the-one · a-Magdalene · and · the-one · other · a-Maria, · to-have-surveiled-unto · to-the-one · to-an-interment.
That word, Lexicon :: Strong's G2020 - epiphōskō ἐπιφώσκω is "as it began to dawn"... It is the break of daylight. It is the same word used in [Luk 23:54 KJV] And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on, where "drew on" is epiphōskō.
with all the greek dictionary entries, charts, graphs, cautions from moderators and other stuff going on in its thread, it's tough to keep a scorecard straight. There is only one conclusion you can make about Matthew 28:1: The time was 6 PM Saturday.
What I perceive happening is people getting out their Strong's dictionaries and analyzing each and every word and trying to force their idea to flow. The problem is that while they pick apart at each word, they totally neglect what the phrase or sentance is saying overall. It's like describing a forrest when all you've done is looked at one tree.
Here it is...
[1] In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
This does not mean after the sabbath or that the sabbath had ended. It does mean it was coming to an end. plane and simple.
[1] In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
This is where people fall apart. They see the word "dawn" and immediately think "sunrise". This is not true. Yes, the word dawn in the greek can mean to bring forth light or to illuminate. It can also mean to bring forth. Overall it either means about 6 PM Saturday or 6 AM Sunday. let's put it all together:
[1] In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
There are two timestamps here connected by the word as. This signifies that one happened immediately after the other, and thus are pointing to one time. The end of the sabbath was 6 PM Saturday. The dawning of the first day was immediately following which was 6:01 PM Saturday evening. It does NOT mean 6 AM Sunday because of the context and overall message the phrase is saying.
There simply is no other way around Mat 28:1. I imagine I'll a response that says something simple like "This not is true". But it is... Plain and simple.
As for folks like Edward and Thisnumberdisconnected who wonder why there is such an arguement in the first place... Well, for me it's about what is written in John 4:24.
There are still a lot of people that ignore that 3 days and three nights can mean nothing else other than 72 hours (or at least the only reason they've given is that it doesn't have to be exact, which is not much of an explanation). There are people who have not adequately described when the soldiers were guarding the tomb, nor when the women bought or prepared the spices. I did get answers, but they were void of reasoning.
with all the greek dictionary entries, charts, graphs, cautions from moderators and other stuff going on in its thread, it's tough to keep a scorecard straight. There is only one conclusion you can make about Matthew 28:1: The time was 6 PM Saturday.
What I perceive happening is people getting out their Strong's dictionaries and analyzing each and every word and trying to force their idea to flow. The problem is that while they pick apart at each word, they totally neglect what the phrase or sentance is saying overall. It's like describing a forrest when all you've done is looked at one tree.
Here it is...
[1] In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
This does not mean after the sabbath or that the sabbath had ended. It does mean it was coming to an end. plane and simple.
[1] In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
This is where people fall apart. They see the word "dawn" and immediately think "sunrise". This is not true. Yes, the word dawn in the greek can mean to bring forth light or to illuminate. It can also mean to bring forth. Overall it either means about 6 PM Saturday or 6 AM Sunday. let's put it all together:
[1] In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
There are two timestamps here connected by the word as. This signifies that one happened immediately after the other, and thus are pointing to one time. The end of the sabbath was 6 PM Saturday. The dawning of the first day was immediately following which was 6:01 PM Saturday evening. It does NOT mean 6 AM Sunday because of the context and overall message the phrase is saying.
There simply is no other way around Mat 28:1. I imagine I'll a response that says something simple like "This not is true". But it is... Plain and simple.
As for folks like Edward and Thisnumberdisconnected who wonder why there is such an arguement in the first place... Well, for me it's about what is written in John 4:24.
There are still a lot of people that ignore that 3 days and three nights can mean nothing else other than 72 hours (or at least the only reason they've given is that it doesn't have to be exact, which is not much of an explanation). There are people who have not adequately described when the soldiers were guarding the tomb, nor when the women bought or prepared the spices. I did get answers, but they were void of reasoning.
There is only a problem. Matthew 28:1 do not read "in the end od tha sabbath". All your speach is based on a false ground and is not valid.
The time was 6 PM Saturday.
When I go back to the diagrams, my thoughts go to "U.S." calendars that I have on my wall and thinking about the new day starting at midnight. But when I correct that and change gears and start thinking in terms of a 24 hour day starting at sunset and going to the next sunset, the old "Saturday / Sunday" line is shifted.Same with midnight. Midnight is not the midle of the night. Midnight is a name. You can not understand midnight as the oposite to noon.
The time was 6 PM Saturday.
Okay, but now I'm confused again. Is this not what you are saying (approximately) Zeleste?
When I go back to the diagrams, my thoughts go to "U.S." calendars that I have on my wall and thinking about the new day starting at midnight. But when I correct that and change gears and start thinking in terms of a 24 hour day starting at sunset and going to the next sunset, the old "Saturday / Sunday" line is shifted.Same with midnight. Midnight is not the midle of the night. Midnight is a name. You can not understand midnight as the oposite to noon.
What, Zeleste, do you say? Kindly translate into the terms that I would use while staring at my calendar on the wall in the United States for a moment, please?
The fact of the matter is that the Lord did not say seventy-two hours and no more and no less. At least I've not found Scriptural support for this math. Have you seen hours spoken of in this manner? I could be wrong, and even as I suggest such a thing, we might do well to look at the OT for the precise instructions about offerings. He may have made limiting statements about when exactly the Wave Offering or the Burnt Sacrificial Offering is to be made. But as far as what I term the "Test of Jonah" the three day and three night condition allow a little latitude and leeway with out need of lassitude and wariness.There simply is no other way around Mat 28:1. I imagine I'll a response that says something simple like "This not is true". But it is... Plain and simple.
As for folks like Edward and Thisnumberdisconnected who wonder why there is such an argument in the first place... Well, for me it's about what is written in John 4:24.
There are still a lot of people that ignore that 3 days and three nights can mean nothing else other than 72 hours (or at least the only reason they've given is that it doesn't have to be exact, which is not much of an explanation). There are people who have not adequately described when the soldiers were guarding the tomb, nor when the women bought or prepared the spices. I did get answers, but they were void of reasoning.
Regarding your thought here, that is not my position at all. I'd like to be allowed to try to use a conflict solving technique based on finding common ground, as opposed to flat out denial or other things that indicate close mindedness. Nobody here is involved in disproving Scripture, but instead we are engaged in an attempt at reconciliation (by finding ways of understanding). Agreed, there are some methods that contribute to Acts 17:11 spirit that I want to see more of here, others that do not, but did you not also state,There simply is no other way around Mat 28:1. I imagine I'll a response that says something simple like "This not is true". But it is... Plain and simple.
with all the greek dictionary entries, charts, graphs, cautions from moderators and other stuff going on in its thread, it's tough to keep a scorecard straight.
What, Zeleste, do you say? Kindly translate into the terms that I would use while staring at my calendar on the wall in the United States for a moment, please?
A Jew date was like this:
commencing at sun set
first 3 night hours = Late watch (opse)
second 3 night hours = Midnight watch
tird 3 night hours = cockcrow watch
last 3 night hours = morning watch
1st hour of day time
2nd
3erd
and like this untill 6th hours being noon
then 7th etc.
ending at 11th
an hour later is Late watch again, for the next date.
Okay, I understand that we could think of the "dawn of the week" as 6:01 pm or thereafter which would be at the start of the Sabbath, or when the sun set that "day". The period of time could mean the first watch, from the time the sun goes down to three hours later. It could mean the start of a new day, and that period of time could begin (and does begin in Jewish thought) at the ending when the sun goes down. That's what Genesis talks about. Gen 1:13 and there. That's how we reckon the start of the 7th Day when we look at Gen 1:31 and cf. it to Gen 2:1-2. You are saying that it does not have to be the breaking dawn of the sun. It could be the "dawn of a new time" or in this case the "ending of one day" at sunset, and not sunrise? Right?Friend and brother
Opse means late. You have posted some use of opse in several ancient manuscripts. Opse not always means the first watch. The primary meaning of opse is late. Nevertheless, sometimes it will mean the name of the first watch (18 to 21). It hapens that in the Nt it is used 3 times, the one we are discussing and two more. It hapens than in the other two, opse is use to name the first watch. It hapens that if we interprete opse as first watch all fist perfectly. If we take opse as first waych everything will match, in special with the other Gospels. It seems adecuate to understand opse as the first watch. And it seems very unadecuate to build an entire hypotesis/doctrine based on an alternate translation of a single word.
Dawn is not only the the commence of the day light. Dawn is use figuratively for the commence of anything.
The fact of the matter is that the Lord did not say seventy-two hours and no more and no less. At least I've not found Scriptural support for this math. Have you seen hours spoken of in this manner? I could be wrong, and even as I suggest such a thing, we might do well to look at the OT for the precise instructions about offerings. He may have made limiting statements about when exactly the Wave Offering or the Burnt Sacrificial Offering is to be made. But as far as what I term the "Test of Jonah" the three day and three night condition allow a little latitude and leeway with out need of lassitude and wariness.
Ok Sparrowhawke... He Did not say 72 hours. But did he say it could be less or more? If you want to throw at me that he didn't say it had to be 72 hours, I'm going to throw it back at you that he didn't say it had to be less than 72 hours.
But Jesus did say that there were 12 hours in a day. He said it in a rhetorical question (John 11:9). By default, I suggest that means there are 12 hours in a night and that makes 24 hours in a calandar day. So I can absolutely without question and being endorsed by the words of Jesus say that there are 12 hours in a day and when he says, "3 days" he means 3 twelve hour periods. He never defined the night as being 12 hours, but like I said, by default, it is.
The problem is, if you accept that Jesus said a day was 12 hours, neither the Friday Crucifixion nor the Thursday Crucifixion model works. I will roll my eyes if you say that a night doesn't have to be 12 hours, but will not accept that a day is any less than 12 hours when our Lord himself defined what a day is.
The funny thing is that this isn't a matter of 2 or 3 hours, it's a matter of 6 to 12 hours not being accounted for.
Then, in the 16th Century came "reform" again:History of the Roman (Julian) Calendar
The Romans were superstitious that even numbers were unlucky, so their months were 29 or 31 days long.
When Rome emerged as a world power, the difficulties of making a calendar were well known, but the Romans complicated their lives because of their superstition that even numbers were unlucky. Hence their months were 29 or 31 days long, with the exception of February, which had 28 days. However, four months of 31 days, seven months of 29 days, and one month of 28 days added up to only 355 days. Therefore the Romans invented an extra month called Mercedonius of 22 or 23 days. It was added every second year.
Even with Mercedonius, the Roman calendar eventually became so far off that Julius Caesar, advised by the astronomer Sosigenes, ordered a sweeping reform. 46 B.C. was made 445 days long by imperial decree, bringing the calendar back in step with the seasons. Then the solar year (with the value of 365 days and 6 hours) was made the basis of the calendar. The months were 30 or 31 days in length, and to take care of the 6 hours, every fourth year was made a 366-day year. Moreover, Caesar decreed the year began with the first of January, not with the vernal equinox in late March.
This calendar was named the Julian calendar, after Julius Caesar, and it continues to be used by Eastern Orthodox churches for holiday calculations to this day. However, despite the correction, the Julian calendar is still 111/2 minutes longer than the actual solar year, and after a number of centuries, even 111/2 minutes adds up.
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Read more: History of the Roman (Julian) Calendar | Infoplease.com http://www.infoplease.com/calendar/roman.html#ixzz2Onb9kKI7
The Gregorian Reform
The Julian calendar is phased out:
By the 15th century the Julian calendar had drifted behind the solar calendar by about a week, so that the vernal equinox was falling around March 12 instead of around March 20. Pope Sixtus IV (who reigned from 1471 to 1484) decided that another reform was needed and called the German astronomer Regiomontanus to Rome to advise him. Regiomontanus arrived in 1475, but unfortunately he died shortly afterward, and the pope's plans for reform died with him.
Then in 1545, the Council of Trent authorized Pope Paul III to reform the calendar once more.
...
Read more: History of the Gregorian Calendar (and problems with it - sparrow note) | Infoplease.com http://www.infoplease.com/calendar/gregorian.html#ixzz2Oncc3xoF
A better calendar? said:It cannot be divided into equal halves or quarters; the number of days per month is haphazard; and months and years may begin on any day of the week. Holidays pegged to specific dates may also fall on any day of the week, and few Americans can predict when Thanksgiving will occur next year.
Read more: History of the Gregorian Calendar | Infoplease.com http://www.infoplease.com/calendar/gregorian.html#ixzz2OngnkZTZ
What was the "problem" they were grappling with and why was the Pope involved? The Vernal Equinox is tied into the celebration of Easter. That was the "problem" that they "fixed". Oh, what other "problems" were fixed at or around that time? Around 1454 Gutenberg printed an edition of the Latin Vulgate Bible... Within a hundred years there was a virtual explosion of Protestant Bibles coming off the new presses.