Hello FightingAtheism,
Finally I can get around to discussing this a little with you. Sometime later I'll tell you of an experience I had after a sincere discussion I had with a roommate of mine who had a similar opinion that unless you do not speak in tongues that you have not been baptized in the Holy Spirit. I've written an entire paper on what the Baptism of the Holy Spirit is and when it occurs if you would like to read it. Just give me your e-mail in a Private Message (PM) if you do.
FightingAtheism said:
Thankyou for the response, cybershark5886.
Glad I can discuss this with you.
FightingAtheism said:
The Holy Spirit is proved by speaking in tongues. Tongues is not the Holy Spirit itself, it's part of the Holy Spirit, just as the words you are uttering.
To be sure, no one can utter things in tongues unless the Spirit is in them, but I believe that it is a distinct gift given only to some. In that case it is a evidence, but not a required one. But I will expand on that view as we progress with the discussion.
FightingAtheism said:
The verse (1 Corinthians 12:13) does not claim that we receive the Holy Spirit the moment we repent, and confess him with our mouth.
...
If that was so, then the Bible clearly contradicts itself:
They had accepted Jesus Christ, they were baptised, but they had not recieved the Holy Ghost!
Oh absolutely the Scripture
does says that we receive the Spirit upon believing, there is no other foundation for being born again or living the Christian life apart from the Spirit. The Scriptures are abundant on this point. You are hard pressed to find even a Pentecostal who will say that every Christian does not receive the Spirit immediately (because only through the "Spirit of Adoption" are we made sons of God - heirs with Christ - and born again), whereas they say later you have a "second" experience where you are "Baptized in the Holy Spirit" where you will speak in tongues, etc. Jesus said, "
Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God"
(John 3:5). I have many more Scriptures I can give you to build a case for the necessity of the Spirit for salvation, and that it is only through the Spirit that we have the power (Greek:
dunamis) to live the Christian life, but I want to see if you first agree on the essential of salvation here before I proceed.
As for your example from Acts, remember that every doctrine must be proved by a volume of witnesses, not just one verse. As the Bible says, "
Every fact is to be confirmed by the testimony of two or three witnesses"
(2 Corinthians 13:1), and the same is good practice for Biblical doctrine. In Acts we see this transitional point, particularly with the Samaritans, in which the Apostles came to confirm the Samaritans in the faith by laying on of hands, but in fact with the Gentiles at Cornelius' house we see the exact opposite sequence of events. They were not even baptized and they received the Spirit, "
While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message"
(Acts 10:44), only after that undeniable evidence of the Spirit falling on them did they get water baptized (which of course is not necessary for salvation). Neither did they receive the laying on of hands to receive the Spirit as did the Samaritans - it came immediately upon belief in the Gospel. These accounts to not contradict one another but show the diversity in ways the Spirit was moving at this time, whatever those reasons may have been. Some have suggested that the Apostles' presence was key at this time, but that is another discussion.
At another time Paul met some men who had been water baptized by John but had not heard of Jesus, thus were not saved, and Paul asks them an important and interesting question,"
Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?"
(Acts 19:2). Then they responded, "
No, we have not even heard whether there is a Holy Spirit"
(Acts 19:2) which is an astonishing response, and clues Paul in that they had not been saved by faith in Christ, and he subsequently discovers they have only heard the preparatory preaching of John - thus had not come to heard of the Savior Jesus Christ. But it also importantly shows that
Paul expected the receiving of the Holy Spirit upon belief. Remember that Christ
promised the Spirit unconditionally to all who believe, "
When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me"
(John 15:26), "
But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth (John 16:13), and also "
I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever; that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you"
(John 14:15-20). The Spirit is in
all who believe through faith in Christ, it is by that and that only that we receive eternal life. The Bible is very clear, "
But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is none of His"
(Romans 8:9).
Christ also said, "
He who believes in Me, as the Scripture said, 'From his innermost being will flow rivers of living water.' But this He spoke of the Spirit, whom those who believed in Him were to receive; for the Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified"
(John 7:38, 39). The Spirit was to be given to
all who believed, and was the source of that that eternal life in Christ, those "living waters" through faith in Christ.
But back to Paul in Acts now. Paul seeing that they had not so much as even heard of the Spirit asked them "
Into what then were you baptized?"
(Acts 19:3), because only the Baptism into the Spirit accomplishes salvation, not baptism into water. When Paul said, "
There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all"
(Ephesians 4:4-6), he refers to Baptism of the Spirit (the one true, saving baptism) and the unity through one body and one Spirit that all Christians share in Christ. That's why Paul said, "For by
one Spirit we were
all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were
all made to drink of one Spirit"
(1 Corinthians 12:13). The Baptism of the Spirit was necessary for these men in Acts 19, not more water baptism.
Then Paul preached the Gospel to them, water baptized them again (once baptized by John) this time through profession of faith in Christ, and then laid hands on them to receive the Holy Spirit (although we know hands laying, though done for these men and the Samaritans as well is not necessary either, because the disciples on Pentecost and also the Gentiles at Cornelius' house were hit by the power of the Spirit coming down directly upon them), and as we are told, "
When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied"
(Acts 19:5, 6) and as we see they also prophesied being given another gift of the Holy Spirit as well as tongues.
The fact is, outside of certain instances in Acts were things happened in what we might consider irregular order (and in many cases they happened different each time - which leaves us a diversity of witness of how God saved people) the doctrinal matters of salvation and the Holy Spirit in
the Epistles and the the Gospels are clear that
every believer receives the Spirit upon believing and that, "
if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is none of His"
(Romans 8:9). Whether they always walk in the filling of the Holy Spirit is another matter, and is mostly what Pentecostals refer to when they mean the "second baptism" of the Holy Spirit. But as I contend in the paper that I wrote the Baptism of the Spirit is the same as regeneration in the Spirit (being born again - saved).
This may all take a little time to digest and read through though, so take your time and feel free to respond point by point if you want to.
FightingAtheism said:
"Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?" -1 Corinthians 12:30
There's a big misinterpretation of the verse. In this chapter, you notice that Paul is talking about the 'different'(v10) kind of tongues, meaning 'not the usual' kind of tongues. The usual kind of tongues is a language no men can understand nor interpret. However, the 'different' kinds of tongues are the type of tongues that can be interpreted.
I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all: -1Co.14:18
They all spoke with tongues. However, if my conclusion wouldn't be correct, then why would Paul tell them that tongues is not for everyone if they all spoke with tongues?
They certainly could have all spoken in tongues there at Corinth (which is why it was a particular problem for them in specific - thus why he wrote them to set the record straight), but by no means does this mean all believers speak in tongues, and also that doesn't warrant assumptions that Paul meant to distinguish tongues into two categories. And there is no doctrinal evidence for any form of tongues being uninterpretable (which is different from saying that it is unintelligible to a human). If the Spirit gives utterance then the Spirit can
certainly give interpretation. There simply is no biblical evidence for two categories of tongues like that, other than the possible distinction of "tongues of angels" and "tongues of men" both of which are the same gift just different forms of it.
God Bless,
~Josh