Did Jesus take on the sins of the whole world?

[Fastfredy0]

So my question is did Jesus die for the sins of the Gentiles are they considered part of the "world"

This is a difficult question because the meaning of WORLD varies and this is ambiguous. I will assume you mean 'everyone without exception".
The answer is completed (long) and debated heavily.

But what scriptures can I refer to that prove He died for the Gentiles as part of the whole world.

Romans 10:12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile; for the same Lord is Lord over all [of us], and [He is] abounding in riches (blessings) for all who call on Him [in faith and prayer].

Eph. 2:11 Therefore, remember that at one time you Gentiles by birth, who are called “Uncircumcision” by those who called themselves “Circumcision,” [itself a mere mark] which is made in the flesh by human hands— 12 remember that at that time you were separated from Christ [excluded from any relationship with Him], alienated from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise [with no share in the sacred Messianic promise and without knowledge of God’s agreements], having no hope [in His promise] and [living] in the world without God. 13 But now [at this very moment] in Christ Jesus you who once were [so very] far away [from God] have been brought near [b]by the blood of Christ. 14 For He Himself is our peace and our bond of unity. He who made both groups—[Jews and Gentiles]—into one body and broke down the barrier, the dividing wall [of spiritual antagonism between us],

If the Gentiles were never under the law then how are they freed from the law they were never under?

Romans 1:19 says the Gentile were under the law as God gave them a conscience ( 19 because that which is known about God is evident within them [in their inner consciousness], for God made it evident to them.), though not the written law of the Jews.
Now, both Jews and Gentiles are 'free from the law" meaning they rely on Grace for salvation and the death penalty of the law is overlooked for those granted Grace. Romans 6:14-23

With that said what did His death mean for the Gentiles and How?

Means same thing to Gentiles as the Jews. It means Christ paid the penalty for the sins of those that believe.

So what does it mean That God loved the World?

Highly debated question.
Long, long answer. Given the other question it seems you have enough to chew upon.

 

[Deidr]

1 JOHN 3:9

No...Paul clearly wrote as a Christian in the whole book of Romans. He was a christian in romans7

So you think that these men who know what the greek text says in scripture are not concerned with truth? I gave you a list in which half of the men are teachers of the greek. they explained what it says.

Godly teachers are not carnal wicked men. This shows a special level of ignorance to suggest this.

You clearly do not understand the answer given. You like others prefer to turn from light to darkness.

You sin in thought, word and deed everyday. You are not better than the Apostle Paul.
Rom.7
18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not.

19 For the good that I would I do not: but the evil which I would not, that I do.

20 Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.

21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.

22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:

23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.

24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?

25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.

Now read Chapter 8

There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.

6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.

7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh.

13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

15 For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.

16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:

17 And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.

 

[Deidr]

This is a difficult question because the meaning of WORLD varies and this is ambiguous. I will assume you mean 'everyone without exception".
The answer is completed (long) and debated heavily.

Yes someone mentioned universalism

Romans 10:12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile; for the same Lord is Lord over all [of us], and [He is] abounding in riches (blessings) for all who call on Him [in faith and prayer].

Good answer..but what did His death have to do with it?

Eph. 2:11 Therefore, remember that at one time you Gentiles by birth, who are called “Uncircumcision” by those who called themselves “Circumcision,” [itself a mere mark] which is made in the flesh by human hands— 12 remember that at that time you were separated from Christ [excluded from any relationship with Him], alienated from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise [with no share in the sacred Messianic promise and without knowledge of God’s agreements], having no hope [in His promise] and [living] in the world without God.

13 But now [at this very moment] in Christ Jesus you who once were [so very] far away [from God] have been brought near [b]by the blood of Christ.

How were they brought near by the blood of Jesus

14 For He Himself is our peace and our bond of unity.

How? Is it because They are part of the "world " in Saint John 3:16?

Is it because when He died He freed Israel off an under the law so that everyone could come to Him by faith in who He was/is.

Or believe on Him for what He did for the Jews
that showed who He is.

He who made both groups—[Jews and Gentiles]—into one body and broke down the barrier, the dividing wall [of spiritual antagonism between us],

Here what was the wall? The law?

Romans 1:19 says the Gentile were under the law as God gave them a conscience ( 19 because that which is known about God is evident within them [in their inner consciousness],

Cool, let me bring it up for study
This is the passage I got, "19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them."

Let me see if I can find the one you are referring to

Romans 2:14
12For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law; 13(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. 14For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: 15Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;) 16In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.


OK, THIS DOES NOT SAY THEY WERE UNDER IT
IN THE SENSE THAT GOD GAVE THEM THE COVENANT. NOR DOES IT SAY HE DIED TO GET THEM OFF AN UNDER THE LAW. Jesus was able to forgive sin long before He died.

for God made it evident to them.), though not the written law of the Jews.

Now, both Jews and Gentiles are 'free from the law"

the Gentile were never under the law but
I can see they can have a clear conscience as they look to Jesus

meaning they rely on Grace for salvation and the death penalty of the law is overlooked for those granted Grace. Romans 6:14-23

maybe not the death penalty of the Law,
but separation they have from God by a guilty conscience. Maybe I may be wrong

Means same thing to Gentiles as the Jews. It means Christ paid the penalty for the sins of those that believe.

I don't see that, Nor does it say that unless I'm missing something.

Highly debated question.
Long, long answer. Given the other question it seems you have enough to chew upon.

Right now what I see is Jesus blood took those off under the law so everyone could live by the power of His Spirit by faith in who He is.

Now there is a passage someone shared I've yet to study, and that is He is the propitiation for not our sins only but the sins of the world.

And still the question is how?
Let me find that while you respond.

 

[Deidr]

1 JOHN 3:9


Now read Chapter 8

There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.

6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.

7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh.

13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

15 For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.

16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:

17 And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.

Ok 1 think 1 John 2 I forgot that quick

1My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: 2And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Jesus Christ the righteous is the propitiation (appeasement) for the sins of the whole world.

Is it because what He did or because who He is?

Just a thought but, But what could have happened for the Gentiles if Jesus didn't die on the cross for the Jews under the Law?

How is Jesus Christ the righteous the appeasement ? It seems we would not know who He was unless He showed what He's done.

And maybe who He is -is his actions and for that reason " I am that I am"

Yet and still, did His blood appease God for the Gentiles?


Jesus forgave sin and healed folk before He died.

One thing that may be able to be recognized here
is what Law is important today for us to uphold through faith.

Do we uphold all the law as the shadows Christ fullfilled, plus the 10 commandments etc civil, moral through faith.




3And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments. 4He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 5But whoso keepeth his word, in him verily is the love of God perfected: hereby know we that we are in him. 6He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked.

 

[Iconoclast]

1 JOHN 3:9


Now read Chapter 8

There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.

6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.

7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh.

13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

15 For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.

16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:

17 And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.

Yes...I read the whole book of Romans Chapter 8 was true, even when Paul wrote chapter 6 and 7.
he was not unsaved in Romans 1-7, then writes as a believer in chapter 8, if that is whatyou are suggesting.

 

[Deidr]

Yes...I read the whole book of Romans Chapter 8 was true, even when Paul wrote chapter 6 and 7.
he was not unsaved in Romans 1-7, then writes as a believer in chapter 8, if that is whatyou are suggesting.

We move from the life described in Romans 7 to the Life described in Romans 8.

 

[Iconoclast]

We move from the life described in Romans 7 to the Life described in Romans 8.

No... that is a commonly taught heresy. Paul was a Christian all through the book that he wrote.

The Christian in Romans 7

The controversy which has raged over Romans 7 is largely the fruitage of the Perfectionism of Wesley and his followers. That brethren, whom we have cause to respect, should have adopted this error in a modified form, only shows how widespread today is the spirit of Laodiceanism. To talk of "getting out of Romans 7 into Romans 8" is excuseless folly. Romans 7 and both apply with undiminished force and pertinence to every believer on earth today. The second half of Romans 7 describes the conflict of the two natures in the child of God: it simply sets forth in detail what is summarized in Galatians 5:17. Romans 7:14, 15, 18, 19, 21 are now true of every believer on earth.

Every Christian falls far, far short of the standard set before him — we mean God's standard, not that of the so-called "victorious life" teachers. If any Christian reader is ready to say that Romans 7:19 does not describe his life, we say in all kindness, that he is sadly deceived.

We do not mean by this that every Christian breaks the laws of men, or that he is an overt transgressor of the laws of God. But we do mean that his life is far, far below the level of the life our Savior lived here on earth. We do mean that there is much of "the flesh" still evident in every Christian — not the least in those who make such loud boastings of their spiritual attainments. We do mean that every Christian has urgent need to daily pray for the forgiveness of his daily sins (Luke 11:4), for "in many things we all stumble" (James 3:2,).

 

[Iconoclast]

pt2.

This is the language of a regenerate soul, and it sums up the contents of the verses immediately preceding. The unregenerate man is wretched indeed, but he is a stranger to the "wretchedness" here expressed, for he knows nothing of the experience which evokes this wail. The whole context is devoted to a description of the conflict between the two natures in the child of God. "I delight in the law of God after the inward man" (v. 22), is true of none but born-again persons. But the one thus "delighting" discovers "another law in his members." This reference must not be limited to his physical members, but is to be understood as including all the various parts of his carnal personality. This "other law" is also at work in the memory, the imagination, the will, the heart, etc. This "other law," says the apostle, warred against the law of his mind (the new nature), and not only so, it brought him "into captivity to the law of sin." (v. 23) To what extent he was brought into "captivity" is not defined. But brought into captivity he was, as is every believer. The wandering of the mind when reading God's Word, the issuing from the heart (Mark 7:21) of evil thoughts when we are engaged in prayer, the horrid images which sometimes come before us in the sleep-state — to name no others — are so many examples of being "brought into captivity to the law of sin." "If the evil principle of our nature prevails in exciting one evil thought, it has taken us captive. So far it has conquered, and so far are we defeated, and made a prisoner" (Robert Haldane).

It is the consciousness of this warring within him and this being brought into captivity to sin, which causes the believer to exclaim, "O wretched man that I am!" This is a cry brought about by a deep realization of indwelling sin. It is the confession of one who knows that in his natural man there dwells no good thing. It is the mournful plaint of one who has discovered something of the horrible sink of iniquity which is in his own heart. It is the groan of a divinely-enlightened man who now hates himself — his natural self — and longs for deliverance.

This moan, "O wretched man that I am," expresses the normal experience of the Christian, and any Christian who does not so moan is in an abnormal and unhealthy state spiritually. The man who does not utter this cry daily is either so out of communion with Christ, or so ignorant of the teaching of Scripture, or so deceived about his actual condition, that he knows not the corruptions of his own heart and the abject failure of his own life.​

 

[Deidr]

No... that is a commonly taught heresy. Paul was a Christian all through the book that he wrote.

The Christian in Romans 7

The controversy which has raged over Romans 7 is largely the fruitage of the Perfectionism of Wesley and his followers. That brethren, whom we have cause to respect, should have adopted this error in a modified form, only shows how widespread today is the spirit of Laodiceanism. To talk of "getting out of Romans 7 into Romans 8" is excuseless folly. Romans 7 and both apply with undiminished force and pertinence to every believer on earth today. The second half of Romans 7 describes the conflict of the two natures in the child of God: it simply sets forth in detail what is summarized in Galatians 5:17. Romans 7:14, 15, 18, 19, 21 are now true of every believer on earth.

Every Christian falls far, far short of the standard set before him — we mean God's standard, not that of the so-called "victorious life" teachers. If any Christian reader is ready to say that Romans 7:19 does not describe his life, we say in all kindness, that he is sadly deceived.

We do not mean by this that every Christian breaks the laws of men, or that he is an overt transgressor of the laws of God. But we do mean that his life is far, far below the level of the life our Savior lived here on earth. We do mean that there is much of "the flesh" still evident in every Christian — not the least in those who make such loud boastings of their spiritual attainments. We do mean that every Christian has urgent need to daily pray for the forgiveness of his daily sins (Luke 11:4), for "in many things we all stumble" (James 3:2,).

You deny we are

to move from the life described in Romans 7 to the life described in Romans 8

 

[Iconoclast]

You deny we are

to move from the life described in Romans 7 to the life described in Romans 8

Yes. Both describe the life of the Christian. Those who say we are sinless are quite deceived.
In Romans 8 we are commanded to Mortify sin! That means the motions of sin battle against all believers while we are here in bodies that are not glorified. You still sin. You might not practice sin, habitually as you did while an unsaved person, but you still sin.

 

[Deidr]

Yes. Both describe the life of the Christian. Those who say we are sinless are quite deceived.
In Romans 8 we are commanded to Mortify sin! That means the motions of sin battle against all believers while we are here in bodies that are not glorified. You still sin. You might not practice sin, habitually as you did while an unsaved person, but you still sin.

A Christian is suppose to Grow

So you still deny we are to move from the life described in Romans 7 to the life described in Romans 8

 

[Deidr]

Yes. Both describe the life of the Christian. Those who say we are sinless are quite deceived.
In Romans 8 we are commanded to Mortify sin! That means the motions of sin battle against all believers while we are here in bodies that are not glorified. You still sin. You might not practice sin, habitually as you did while an unsaved person, but you still sin.

2 Peter
His divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him that hath called us to glory and virtue.


......
And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.

6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.


"Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world."

 

[Iconoclast]

2 Peter
His divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him that hath called us to glory and virtue.


......
And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.

6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.


"Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world."

Sorry you lack the ability to read with comprehension.
The verses do not contradict each other.
Paul wrote as a Christian in all 12 chapters.

 

[Deidr]

...

Sorry you lack the ability to read with comprehension.
The verses do not contradict each other.
Paul wrote as a Christian in all 12 chapters.

Okayee
So much for
Just comment on what Romans 8
Instead of putting people down

 

[Fastfredy0]

Good answer..but what did His death have to do with it [the bringing of the Jews and Gentiles together]?

Col. 1:21 Once you [Paul's talking to Colossians but we assume this applies to all Gentiles] were separated from God. The evil things you did showed your hostile attitude. 22 But now Christ has brought you back to God by dying in his physical body. [Christ's death is associated by bringing the Gentiles into the fold with the Jews] He did this so that you could come into God’s presence without sin, fault, or blame. 23 This is on the condition that you continue in faith without being moved from the solid foundation of the hope that the Good News contains.

How were they brought near by the blood of Jesus

By His death (see above). God says Christ's death is the instrument of His Grace to us.

____________________
Fastfredy0 said: 14 For He Himself is our peace and our bond of unity.
You responded:

Question1

How? Is it because They are part of the "world " in Saint John 3:16?

Question2

Is it because when He died He freed Israel off an under the law so that everyone could come to Him by faith in who He was/is.

Question 3

Or believe on Him for what He did for the Jews
that showed who He is.

Question 1: That's a long story with an explanation of the meaning of WORLD that is a long story.
World is an ambiguous word. It can mean "everyone without exception" or "everyone without distinction". If you study all the verses with the word WORLD you will it can't always mean "everyone without exception". World can also mean the planet, the world system, the entire universe. Now everyone has bias' so when they see the word WORLD they will usually define it according to their bias. So, without yapping forever, be suspicious when people refer to WORLD. In regards to John 3:16 and WORLD and keeping in mind I have a bias ... I believe it means both Jews and Gentiles as opposed to just Jews. That being said, when you have a verse with dubious meaning, seek out other verses that are explicit to determine the meaning of the implicit verses.

Question 2: ... do you have any simple questions? This complication. The LAW is used in so many different ways in the bible. Anyways, I will first point out that there may be a false premise in your question. People were never saved by the law (Gal. 2:16). Salvation is always by faith.
Back to the question ... as I understand it, Christ death is the reason that the Law has no power to condemn us and thus we are not under the law in regards to salvation. We are still under the law (well, some of the laws have been set aside) in regards to obedience.

Question 3: Hmmm, not sure I understand. I think I've lost the context in which the question is asked.



Re: Eph. 2:14 you asked

Here what was the wall? The law?

To understand this verse we must discover what dividing wall Paul had in mind. Perhaps it was the wall in Herod’s Temple courtyard that separated the Court of the Gentiles from the Court of the Jews. [Note: Morris, p. 65. Cf. Flavius Josephus, Antiquities of the Jews, 15:11:5; ibid., The Wars of the Jews, 5:5:2.] This seems improbable since that wall still stood and divided Jews and Gentiles when Paul wrote this epistle. Perhaps he had in mind the veil between the holy and most holy places in that temple. However, that veil-it was not a wall-did not separate Jews from Gentiles but all people from God. It seems most probable that Paul had in mind a spiritual rather than a physical barrier that had separated Jews and Gentiles since Abraham’s time. This is in harmony with Paul’s emphasis on spiritual realities that marks Ephesians.
"This new institution [the church] does not dissolve ethnic distinctions, but displays reconciliation, with every believer equally qualified to share in the benefits of salvation and peace that emerge from the uniting of Jews and Gentiles into a new living community." [Note: Bock, p. 314.]
This verse is a strong testimony to the fact that with the death of Jesus Christ God began dealing with humankind on a different basis than He had in the past. He now stopped working with and though the Jews and Judaism primarily (though temporarily, cf. Romans 11). Instead He began dealing with Jews and Gentiles on the same basis, namely, their faith in His Son. In others words, He began a new dispensation or administration in His dealings with humanity. Tom Constable

Re: Romans 1:19 and 2:14

OK, THIS DOES NOT SAY THEY WERE UNDER IT
IN THE SENSE THAT GOD GAVE THEM THE COVENANT. NOR DOES IT SAY HE DIED TO GET THEM OFF AN UNDER THE LAW. Jesus was able to forgive sin long before He died.

Agreed, Gentiles not under written Law of Jews or Covenant (well, technically Gentiles were in covenant with Abraham Gen 12:7, Gen 17:4 ... and covenant with Adam Gen 3:15) ... The Gentiles did have the law of God via their conscience.
Agreed, my verses don't say Jesus died to get people off from under the law. I think my verses addressed another question if I recall correctly.
Yes, God has always made FAITH the instrument of forgiveness.

Right now what I see is Jesus blood took those off under the law so everyone could live by the power of His Spirit by faith in who He is.

Agreed. I would clarify "Jesus blood took those off under the law". I would state is as: "Jesus blood took those off the penalty of those under the law". We are still obedient and our obedience is powered by the Spirit. 2 Corinthians 3:5

 

[jeremiah1five]

I'm a Baptist; So if I could have some Baptist answers I'd appreciate it.

So my question is did Jesus die for the sins of the Gentiles are they considered part of the "world"

Jesus did not die for the sins of the whole world. He died for His Church Eph. 5:25.

I know that God told Peter what God had made clean let no man call unclean.

But what scriptures can I refer to that prove He died for the Gentiles as part of the whole world.

If the Gentiles were never under the law then how are they freed from the law they were never under?

But if by freeing the Jews under their contract or Covenant through His death so that He can be Lord of all through the Spirit what did that look like in scripture.

With that said what did His death mean for the Gentiles and How?

It seems so that He could marry another.

So what does it mean That God loved the World?
"World"

Many questions, but that's perfectly fine.

So my question is did Jesus die for the sins of the Gentiles are they considered part of the "world"

I know that God told Peter what God had made clean let no man call unclean.

But what scriptures can I refer to that prove He died for the Gentiles as part of the whole world.

If the Gentiles were never under the law then how are they freed from the law they were never under?

But if by freeing the Jews under their contract or Covenant through His death so that He can be Lord of all through the Spirit what did that look like in scripture.

With that said what did His death mean for the Gentiles and How?

It seems so that He could marry another.

So what does it mean That God loved the World?
"World"

I'm a Baptist; So if I could have some Baptist answers I'd appreciate it.

So my question is did Jesus die for the sins of the Gentiles are they considered part of the "world"

I know that God told Peter what God had made clean let no man call unclean.

But what scriptures can I refer to that prove He died for the Gentiles as part of the whole world.

If the Gentiles were never under the law then how are they freed from the law they were never under?

But if by freeing the Jews under their contract or Covenant through His death so that He can be Lord of all through the Spirit what did that look like in scripture.

With that said what did His death mean for the Gentiles and How?

It seems so that He could marry another.

So what does it mean That God loved the World?
"World"

NOPE.
Jesus died for His Church. ONLY.

 

[Deidr]

Jesus did not die for the sins of the whole world. He died for His Church Eph. 5:25.

Many questions, but that's perfectly fine.

So my question is did Jesus die for the sins of the Gentiles are they considered part of the "world"

I know that God told Peter what God had made clean let no man call unclean.

But what scriptures can I refer to that prove He died for the Gentiles as part of the whole world.

If the Gentiles were never under the law then how are they freed from the law they were never under?

But if by freeing the Jews under their contract or Covenant through His death so that He can be Lord of all through the Spirit what did that look like in scripture.

With that said what did His death mean for the Gentiles and How?

It seems so that He could marry another.

So what does it mean That God loved the World?
"World"

NOPE.
Jesus died for His Church. ONLY.

So are you saying it should read like this:


For God so love the World(church) that He gave His only begotten son (to sacrifice Himself) and whosoever[?the church?] believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

Sound like the Father wanted the son to marry the people. So Jesus made the ultimate sacrifice to receive that same sacrifice coming back from the church.

But for some reason I believe God Love the World, all of His creation-for He would that none perish...


 

 

[jeremiah1five]

So are you saying it should read like this:


For God so love the World(church) that He gave His only begotten son (to sacrifice Himself) and whosoever[?the church?] believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

Sound like the Father wanted the son to marry the people. So Jesus made the ultimate sacrifice to receive that same sacrifice coming back from the church.

But for some reason I believe God Love the World, all of His creation-for He would that none perish...


 

The Scripture, the Word of God is for believers ONLY.
And Peter's statement that "God is not willing that none should perish" is addressed to the elect. ALL Scripture is addressed to God's elect, so read it in this context.

Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied. 1 Pe 1:2.

 

[Deidr]

The Scripture, the Word of God is for believers ONLY.
And Peter's statement that "God is not willing that none should perish" is addressed to the elect. ALL Scripture is addressed to God's elect, so read it in this context.

Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied. 1 Pe 1:2.

Let me
When it says whosoever that just means the elect.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Let me
When it says whosoever that just means the elect.

Yes. Taken in context to the audience to whom the/that word is spoken or addressed.