Hi
Hopeful 2
You may be correct that it's death and not sin, but some of the commentaries I've read indicate that there is a sin nature that is passed down from generation to generation because of Adam's sin.
Benson's commentary:
Since the very essence of sin consists in the violation of a law. And consequently, since we see, in fact, that sin was imputed, we must conclude that the persons, to whose account it was charged, were under some law. Now this, with respect to infants, could not be the law of nature, (any more than the law of Moses,) for infants could not transgress that; it must therefore have been the law given to Adam, the transgression whereof is, in some sense, imputed to all, even to infants, he being the representative of all his posterity, and they all being in his loins.
In other words, they do not die for any actual sins of their own, being incapable, while in infancy, of committing any, but through Adam’s sin alone.
Matthew Henry's commentary:
Adam sinning, his nature became guilty and corrupted, and so
came to his children. Thus in him all have sinned. And death is by sin; for death is the wages of sin.
Anyway, the issue isn't that Jesus was birthed through the birth canal of Mary. The issue is whether the zygote of the human body of Jesus, as he began maturing in Mary's womb, was a fully formed and functioning zygote when the Holy Spirit did what he did to implant it to the wall of Mary's womb.
Did the Holy Spirit just somehow put sperm in Mary's abdomen that then entered into one of her eggs? Or, did the Holy Spirit implant a fully formed and ready to grow fertilized egg into Mary's womb that needed neither the sperm of Joseph nor the egg of Mary to begin its maturation to become the baby Jesus?
God bless,
Ted