If Messiah fulfilled the entire law, then why hasn't the entire law become obsolete and unneeded? Paul says the law has been established (made to stand) through faith. Messiah clearly fulfilled sacrifices. He has not fulfilled the Sabbath. You may argue that he fulfilled the Sabbath rest, but I disagree. And he certainly did not fulfill, "Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work: But the seventh day is the sabbath of Yahweh thy Elohim: in it thou shalt not do any work."
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law. Romans 3:31
Establish here carries the meaning of:
- to uphold or sustain the authority or force of anything
- to set or place in a balance
- to weigh: money to one (because in very early times before the introduction of coinage, the metals used to be weighed)
Paul says by faith we agree with or balance the authority of the law.
Obedience to do all the law and continue to do all the law is what was required of the children of Israel.
By faith, means
obedience to do what God says.
Both of these agree, in that obedience is the common ground or balance.
29 Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, 30 since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and
the uncircumcised through faith. 31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law.
Romans 3:29-31
Paul is certainly not requiring us to keep the law of Moses here by his statement, for he clearly prefaced verse 31 with God will justify the UNCIRCUMCISED
through faith.
The law of Moses requires "physical" circumcision of the flesh, the New Covenant does not.
Paul clearly states that the righteousness APART FROM THE LAW...
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
21 But now the righteousness of God
apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets,
Romans 3:20,21
The context of Romans 3 is addressing Jews -
1 What advantage then has the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision? 2 Much in every way! Chiefly because to them were committed the oracles of God.
9 What then? Are
we better than
they? Not at all. For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.
When Paul states what he does in verse 31,
WE is a reference to Jews.
Do
we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary,
we establish the law.
1 What then shall
we say that Abraham
our father has found according to the flesh? Romans 4:1
The law of Moses has never had anything to do with uncircumcised Gentiles who do not live in the land of Israel.
JLB