Doulos Iesou
Member
Agreed, Amen! An honest mistake, and his statement can be a little confusing if not read in a very specific context.Sorry but I addressed what I saw.
No the Bible teaches us we are saved because of grace and faith.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
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https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
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https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Agreed, Amen! An honest mistake, and his statement can be a little confusing if not read in a very specific context.Sorry but I addressed what I saw.
No the Bible teaches us we are saved because of grace and faith.
I just wonder what Paul means in 2 Tim 2:10, if the elect are in Christ, then why is he praying that THEY should obtain salvation? Sounds to me like he is praying about Israel.
In any event, yes those that are saved are called the elect, but IMO that does NOT mean especially chosen.
I'm thinking that the term 'elect' generally refers to the apostolic church in contrast to Judaism in the NT, and Judaism in contrast to the gentile world in the OT. We Christians today are not the 'elect', rather we are a new creation.
That would be the topic for ANOTHER thread.
You may be correct in your premise that he is speaking of the Jews. I am not sure. However, there are other scriptures where Paul speaks very much the same way with out mentioning the word elect.
Col 1:24 I now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and do fill up the things lacking of the tribulations of the Christ in my flesh for his body, which is the assembly,
He may be saying that you Timothy are saved and I am saved but there are others, the elect, who are not yet saved and so he endures in the trials and tribulations he faces as he continues to spread the gospel so that they will hear and be saved also.
I think Paul took his calling to the point where he took the full burden of the cross on his shoulders and ran a race to see that as many as possible would hear the his gospel message and attain salvation.
That is my point about Romans 8, that the elect are all believers through out time who do believe or in the future will be, they are all in a group called the elect. All those in Christ, the Elect One, the Chosen One.
I'm glad we can agree at least that all the Body are the elect because they are, in Christ.
I mean his statement about being a new creation. There is no doubt the Bible calls Christians elect, but the actual connotations used, vary.I am interested because this thread is about determining who the elect are.
True.I mean his statement about being a new creation. There is no doubt the Bible calls Christians elect, but the actual connotations used, vary.
There have been several important points discussed on this thread thus far, and I shall attempt explaining my faith on all those as and when I can - but I've identified this to be the crux of the matter, at least for myself. I do not identify myself as anything but Christian, but my doctrinal beliefs do find common ground in the reformed view - this is simply to inform where I come from with respect to doctrines.Me too for many years, but praise the Lord I had to learned the hard way to ask Him into my heart as He has made me whom I am today.
I only know of one person who claims the Arminian label on this thread so he would have to answer you. I as well just use Christian and consequently don't see what some claim to be the truth of RT/Monergism/Calvinism. Clearly you see one drawback already in the partiality issue when indeed scripture says God is not partial, so you are well on your way to understanding scripture, which of course is the most important thing, not man made doctrines or labels.So if someone could explain the arminian position without setting some to be relatively more righteous than others, I'd gladly begin considering adopting that worldview - but if someone here could explain the calvinist position without setting God to be partial, would that be reason enough for you to begin considering this worldview?
Stan,I only know of one person who claims the Arminian label on this thread so he would have to answer you. I as well just use Christian and consequently don't see what some claim to be the truth of RT/Monergism/Calvinism. Clearly you see one drawback already in the partiality issue when indeed scripture says God is not partial, so you are well on your way to understanding scripture, which of course is the most important thing, not man made doctrines or labels.
While he does not identify as an Arminian but as a 'moderate Calvinist', Norman Geisler's book has many points regarding salvation with which I agree: Chosen but free: A balanced view of divine election (Bethany House Publishers 1999). There is a later, revised edition."Now therefore fear the Lord and serve him in sincerity and in faithfulness. Put away the gods that your fathers served beyond the River and in Egypt, and serve the Lord. [15] And if it is evil in your eyes to serve the Lord, CHOOSE THIS DAY WHOM YOU WILL SERVE, whether the gods your fathers served in the region beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you dwell. But as for me and my house, we will serve the Lord."
[16] Then the people answered, "Far be it from us that we should forsake the Lord to serve other gods,
This is a good starting point. We're agreed upon the fact that man does not have the inherent capacity to believe the Gospel and that God must do the enabling in such a man to believe in the Person of Christ. And we're also agreed upon the fact that such an enabling to believe is all of grace and not something any man merits or is entitled to. Great.Salvation in it's totality is a gift that is received, and the capacity to receive it is only possible through the grace of God, by the Holy Spirit enabling us to have faith.
This indicates a misunderstanding of each other's beliefs - for I too hold the above statement as true and yet it seems you think the opposite is what my worldview must hold. While dealing with causative reasons, Man perishes because of his own wickedness - God's election has no causative role to play in that. I'm guessing you have an issue when I say that election only determines the salvation of those who've been shown mercy - not the condemnation of those who weren't shown mercy. To you, it might seem like one being the converse of the other - but i don't see it that way at all. Apply it in the context of one common murderer being pardoned by a sovereign king, while another is not - is the king to be blamed for this person being hung according to the law that he transgressed? And yet we'd attribute the life of the first person entirely to the mercy of the king, wouldn't we?If man does not respond it is because of their wickedness, not God's unwillingness to elect and save that individual.
If God primarily desires none to perish, it follows He must do everything within His power to result in that case scenario - which further entails He must not even create all those whom He foreknows to remain unbelievers. Why Matt 26:24 - "it is better for this man if he was not born" when it is within God's power to ensure he wasn't?If God wishes and desires that all people to be saved and all to come to repentance, then it does not fit that God would not seek the salvation of all people, but rather an elect few.
I'm not aware of any calvinist doctrine stating the offer of Christ's sacrifice is limited to just a few. As far as I know, only the atonement is limited, not by sufficiency but by application - atoning for the sins of only those who believe in the Son of God, therein declaring those who continue in their unbelief will die in their sins.Christ's sacrifice was not just for us, for the sins of the whole world. This verse disproves Calvinism outright.
Yes, hence their references to Israel being the children of Promise.Curious what you do with these texts, which seem to indicate conditional election in the OT.
Notice, that they were chosen as a people (not individuals), because he was keeping an oath he swore to their fathers.
You just quoted the Old Covenant under the law - which is conditional in its very nature. And it has been found fault with since it's broken by the disobedience of the covenant people. But what does the New Covenant of grace say -God then gives the reason for his continued keeping of the Covenant and Love for them, which is "because you listen to these rules and keep and do them." Nothing could be further from unconditional election, and if this was something that God did "before the foundation of the world," then wouldn't these people be elect before the foundation of the world too? Yet, God said that he would keep his Covenant faithfulness towards these individuals, conditional on their obedience.
How do you view these verses?
There have been several important points discussed on this thread thus far, and I shall attempt explaining my faith on all those as and when I can - but I've identified this to be the crux of the matter, at least for myself. I do not identify myself as anything but Christian, but my doctrinal beliefs do find common ground in the reformed view - this is simply to inform where I come from with respect to doctrines.
I completely get where the person is coming from when she makes the above statement, and in truth, I too praise God for His works in you, for_his_glory. Now on to splitting hair, not taking away anything from what you've said nor making it in any way personal, why must I praise the Lord alone instead of praising you too - when it was you who had the humility to learn and accept the Lord while so many around you reject Him and while it was you who did not harden your heart to His gift while so many others harden their own stubborn hearts of stone.
Doesn't it all boil down to that - all of mankind is not going to end up in the same place, and that's a Fact. In trying to determine the causative source of this disparity or distinction, we end up either concluding that some are just that bit more good or more humble or more whatever it takes to accept the gift of salvation than the others - or that God makes this distinction apart from anything anyone has done towards this. Of course, I do not for a moment believe anyone goes about consciously paying heed to how they're intrinsically better than the unbeliever, but alas, that is the inescapable conclusion of the arminian position.
And yes, while the calvinist position solves that by declaring each and every man to be equally totally depraved dependent upon the sovereign mercy of God alone, it makes out God to be seemingly partial. I, myself, have not found God to be partial from what I see in the Bible and it doesn't at all amount to any inconsistencies with whatever else I believe. Nevertheless, we must first choose our beliefs here to proceed further - for all further doctrines will be built on what we choose to believe here.
So if someone could explain the arminian position without setting some to be relatively more righteous than others, I'd gladly begin considering adopting that worldview - but if someone here could explain the calvinist position without setting God to be partial, would that be reason enough for you to begin considering this worldview?
This is a good starting point. We're agreed upon the fact that man does not have the inherent capacity to believe the Gospel and that God must do the enabling in such a man to believe in the Person of Christ. And we're also agreed upon the fact that such an enabling to believe is all of grace and not something any man merits or is entitled to. Great.
Where I think we differ is here - I cannot make sense of an additional stage beyond this enabling work of God and before man believing in God - to me, both amount to the same effect, the former implying the latter. Whereas I think you see this enabling of faith as only the first stage of salvation involving God's work which then needs to be completed by the second stage of man's willing to believe.
If we're on the same page still, then I'd like to know what was the inhibiting factor that caused this incapacity in man to believe in the first place, which had to be removed by God's enabling work? I hold it to be the stubborn stony heart of man itself(Eze 36:26) - which the enabling work of God regenerates into a new heart and why - so that it can no longer be stubborn and hardened against accepting the Gospel. So, once this enabling regeneration is done, what could still keep man from rejecting the Gospel after that? It would be quite futile to say that the will of man can still be disobedient and hardened against God when in the same breath we say that God's enabling work dealt with that very issue of a hardened and disobedient hearer.
Anyway, I guess you must have reconciled this differently where you hold the inhibiting factor to be something quite independently distinct from the hardened heart of the hearer - which is how you are able to hold both the enabling work of God and the hardening of the hearer's heart to happen simultaneously. What is this inhibiting factor then that you hold?
This indicates a misunderstanding of each other's beliefs - for I too hold the above statement as true and yet it seems you think the opposite is what my worldview must hold. While dealing with causative reasons, Man perishes because of his own wickedness - God's election has no causative role to play in that. I'm guessing you have an issue when I say that election only determines the salvation of those who've been shown mercy - not the condemnation of those who weren't shown mercy. To you, it might seem like one being the converse of the other - but i don't see it that way at all. Apply it in the context of one common murderer being pardoned by a sovereign king, while another is not - is the king to be blamed for this person being hung according to the law that he transgressed? And yet we'd attribute the life of the first person entirely to the mercy of the king, wouldn't we?
Yep you were the one I was talking about.Stan,
I identify as a Reformed/Classical Arminian, i.e. my understanding of the doctrine of salvation is parallel to that taught by the founder of the Arminian view, Jacob Arminius. This is a brief summary:
Oz
I agree. not just logically, but simply in straight-away Truth as it is written.......
When I examine these verses, I find that faith is logically prior to salvation/regeneration/becoming born again: Luke 13:3; John 3:6-7, 16; Acts 16:31; Romans 3:24-25; 5:1; Titus 3:5-7; and 2 Peter 3:9.
Oz