Lets start here....
What is heretical about the following.
TOTAL DEPRAVITY
THE FALL HAS RESULTED IN SPIRITUAL DEATH TO ALL MEN.
Gen.2:16-17
Romans.5:12
Eph.2:1-3
Col.2:13
FALLEN MAN IS NOW BLIND AND DEAF TO SPIRITUAL TRUTH.
Gen.6:5
Gen.8:21
Ecc.9:3
Jer.17:9
Mark.7:21-23
FALLEN MAN IS NOW UNDER THE CONTROL OF SATAN AND IN BONDAGE TO SIN.
John.8:44
Eph.2:1-2
2Tim.2:25-26
1John.3:10
1John.5:19
Rom.6:20
Titus.3:3
FALLEN MAN, LEFT IN HIS DEAD STATE, IS TOTALLY UNABLE TO REPENT, TO BELIEVE THE GOSPEL, OR TO COME TO CHRIST.
John.6:44
John.6:65
Rom.3:9 -12
Rom.8:7-8
1Cor.2:14
If you do not see total depravity in the Biblical verses, do you believe that man is basically good?
Thank you very much electedbyhim for these helpful verses! I hope that everyone here can believe that they are true! To the list I would like to add Pr. 14:12:
There is a way which seemeth right unto a man, but the end thereof are the ways of death.
Much of the verses that you quoted, like John.6:44, John.6:65 or 2 Tim. 2:25-26 undeniably show that a man cannot come to Jesus, unless it is given him from God! The testimony of the Bible on this fact is overwhelming: there is no way that the man with his fallen nature can find and choose God by his own efforts or virtue!
Do we all agree up to this point?
Now, when the Word of God meets someone, this is a new situation. As previously said, no one has the ability to find God, therefore when the Word of God meets someone, it can only be the initiative of God, in other words, an act of God's Sovereignty.
Do we all still agree?
Now, in this new situation when the Word of God, which is spirit and life (Jn 6:63), meets someone, I believe this is where we disagree:
A) Can a man only turn to Christ by an act of Sovereignty of God that doesn't take into account the will of man, as the man remains unable to choose God?
B) Does God enable the man at this moment to freely choose Him or reject Him? Before this moment, the will of man isn't free in the sense that he could choose God. But now, in this small frame of time, the man would be enabled to do so. And, as we read in John.6:44, John.6:65 or 2 Tim. 2:25-26, this could only be a gift of God, so that all the glory belongs to God (Eph 2:8-9).
Do we agree that it is where the disagreement is? In which case, we need to find other verses that could enlighten us on the question. Here are the verses that I have in mind:
- I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live (Deut 30:19)
- O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not! (Matt. 23:37)
- Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts. (Heb. 4:7)
I believe that those verses speaks for B), yet affirm that God takes the initiative. Yes, God commands man not to harden his heart, as he hears His voice. Why should God do so if the man would have no possiblity to choose whether to harden his heart to reject the Word of God, or not to harden his heart to accept it?
For all that believe that A) is true: do you have any verses that could testify to your view? Remember, this is not about the general incapacity of fallen man to find and choose God. This is about the key moment when a man hears the Word of God, which he is going to either accept or reject!