Papa Zoom
CF Ambassador
All the time.God is good!
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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All the time.God is good!
Referring to Israel passing through the Red Sea, Peter tells us: (1Pe 3:21) There is also an antitype (of passing through the sea) which now saves us—baptism (not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,Of course not in the sense Jim means it. It's easily proven to be a non-Biblical claim that we are born again (regenerated) in water as a requirement to salvation (entering God's kingdom).
(1) God used a created thing to save mankind when he used Jesus human body as a sacrifice for our sins.Not to mention being an irrational claim to make that God would use a created thing (H2O) to birth again something which has already been born of water.
Here is my original post again, which should clarify my position.
The sequence of events is irrelevant.Did Peter say to water baptize them (Gentiles) before or after they had received the Holy Spirit "just as we (Jews) have"?
If it wasn't in the original autograph, it isn't Scripture. It's just an add on.Its hilarious that your only answer to scripture, is to claim it's not really scripture.
To demonstrate my faith publicly. Why else?If you have been baptized in water then why do you teach its not necessary?
It's in all the Bibles. But a study Bible will add this phrase "The most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20".I read and studied Mark 16, and verse 15-16 are in my bible.
What evidence do you have that any of them did, in fact?Did you ever stop to wonder why those signs followed believers in the New Testament scriptures?
For those who actually read my posts, they see Scripture in them.Is that why your posts just have opinion?
Thanks. It was my pleasure.FreeGrace,
I find that to be an excellent exposition the rejects baptismal regeneration.
I'm not sure of what you're questioning here. Acts 2 records WHEN the FIRST believers were baptized with the Holy Spirit, which wasn't wet, but rather, dry. Or, as John the baptizer said, "by fire". There's no water in fire, from my experience.There is one point I'd question (not disagree with) and that is your statement:
"Peter further clarifies his point by adding "not the removal of dirt from the body". This is clearly a reference to literal water. And he says "NOT the removal of dirt". iow, it's NOT water baptism that saves us. That's just a symbol. It's the baptism of the Holy Spirit that saves."
Here you refer to 1 Peter 3:21. The reason I question this is because of this verse:
'We were all baptized by one Holy Spirit into one body. It didn't matter whether we were Jews or Greeks, slaves or free people. We were all given the same Spirit to drink' (1 Cor 12:13 NIRV).
Seems that this refers to the Holy Spirit baptising Christians into the body of Christ at salvation - no matter what our cultural background. The baptism of the Holy Spirit came at Pentecost (Acts 2). I appreciate that both 1 Peter and 1 Cor were written after the Day of Pentecost.
Again, my pleasure.Congratulations on an excellent post and especially your explanations. ed
Oz
1 Cor 1:14, but Paul didn't add "to God". But he was thankful that he didn't baptize any of them except Crispus and Gaius.Again where does Paul say "I give-thanks to God that I baptized none of you" in Romans 6:3-4, the verse you quoted with your question.
1 Cor 1:14, but Paul didn't add "to God". But he was thankful that he didn't baptize any of them except Crispus and Gaius.
Papa Zoom and I have concluded our one on one on the subject of how those IN Christ got INTO Christ. It involved water baptism. We encourage all to read the discussion.
I invite any on this forum to enter a discussion with me on the one on one with me on what we discussed. ANY TAKERS?
Referring to Israel passing through the Red Sea, Peter tells us: (1Pe 3:21) There is also an antitype (of passing through the sea) which now saves us—baptism
Who told you that?God used a created thing to save mankind when he used Jesus human body as a sacrifice for our sins.
No it hasn't. The church and Peter in his first letter taught "baptism" saves us, not 'water baptism'. You insert water into a verse where Peter specifically says the washing of the flesh does NOT save us and used the passing of Israel on dry ground to prove his point.The Church has taught from it's earliest days that we are born again of water in baptism
Was the fact that God parted the sea before Israel passed through it on dry ground not relevant too?The sequence of events is irrelevant.
It does if you can read and understand English at a 4th grade level.1 Peter 3:21 says zero about 'water baptism' saving us.
Yep, that's what it takes.It does if you can read and understand English at a 4th grade level.
1 Cor 1:14, but Paul didn't add "to God". But he was thankful that he didn't baptize any of them except Crispus and Gaius.
Your original post doesn't clarify your position on what you called water baptism in Acts 8 as it doesn't address Acts 8.
Nor does it explain what water baptism is necessary for. You should be able to explain what water baptism accomplished for Simon in Acts 8, if it's "necessary".
Once again, the misreading bug has bit. I never said what is being claimed. I suggested that you invest in a study Bible. They have added notes along the margins, for, you know, studying. Cross references, etc.It's in all the Bibles. But a study Bible will add this phrase "The most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20".
[QOUTE]When you say "invest in a bible study", do you mean purchase some commentary that tells you Mark 16:9-20 isn't really scripture?
To demonstrate my faith publicly. Why else?
btw, where did I ever even suggest that water baptism wasn't necessary?
Define what is meant by "necessary" so I can properly respond to your false charge.
1 Peter 3:21 says zero about 'water baptism' saving us. If you cannot make a Biblical case, just insert your own, I guess.
Again, your inability to comprehend what you read has led you to a totally incorrect conclusion.Peter says the complete opposite, in fact. The removal of dirt from the flesh does NOT save us.
My mistake. That was the wrong reference.Israel pased through the sea on dry ground.
You are basing your response on your lack of reading comprehension skills and your total ignorance of the documents of the early Church.No it hasn't.
Again: You completely failed to grasp the meaning of the words. Peter said the exact opposite.You insert water into a verse where Peter specifically says the washing of the flesh does NOT save us
That question is irrelevant (though I'm quite sure you have no idea why) and another demonstration of your dismal lack of reading comprehension skills which is the source of your confusion.Was the fact that God parted the sea before Israel passed through it on dry ground not relevant too?