Where does Paul, or anyone else, teach that "works" means "any non-law work", or anything done, as you said previously?
"...God; 9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace..." (2 Timothy 1:9 KJV)
"5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; 6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ..." (Titus 3:5 KJV)
Where does ANYONE in Scripture make the connection between "works" and baptism, for instance?
Baptism is a work of the law, but anyway...
“I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?”
15 Jesus replied, “Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness.” (Matthew 3:14-15 NIV1984)
Even more to the point, where does ANYONE connect "works" with good deeds done in faith or the lack thereof, like walking by someone in need "without giving them the things needed for the body", as in James? This is what you need to prove, which you can't because SCRIPTURE DOESN'T MAKE THE CONNECTION. This is the notion on which your entire argument hinges and is not biblical or logical.
I already told you. One of his examples of faith that is alive in works is referring to Deuteronomy 15:7-8 . The requirement of law to be generous to the poor is a righteous work of the law. James says when we do that righteous work of the law we are showing our faith in Christ.
I'm lost here. Did you mistakenly leave out a comma or did you mean that having no "works of the law" means you don't have justification?
If you have no works of the law, like 'love your neighbor as yourself', and 'do not show favoritism to the rich', and 'be openhanded toward your brothers and toward the poor and needy', you have a 'faith' that can not save, because the faith that justifies apart from works of the law MUST be seen in the keeping of those kinds of laws in the law. NOT because those works MAKE you righteous, but because they are the expected and obligatory outcome of saving faith. IOW, they SHOW you to have laid hold of the righteousness of God that comes from faith in God's Promised Son.
Are you trying to draw a parallel between "works of the law" and "the royal law"? They are different.
How is this NOT a work of the law?:
"...love your neighbor as yourself." (LEVITICUS 19:18 NIV1984)
What does 'royal' mean to you?
Does it mean it's not part of where it came from? Doesn't it rather mean it is exalted, like a royal leader?
Yes, IF you can prove "works" in James and Paul mean the same thing, which you can't. That is the other (and far more logical) way to reconcile the two, which is MY "choice". Why would you reject this way without any Biblical reason? It's obvious that James is talking about good deeds done in faith (part of the royal law) and Paul is talking about circumcision (part of the law of Moses). Why do you keep rejecting this common sense approach out of hand?
Let's add some common sense to show you I'm right:
"20 ...no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin." (Romans 3:20 NIV1984)
How is it that Paul is ONLY referring to things like circumcision when he says 'works of the law' when he says it is these works of the law make us conscious of sin? Is not being circumcised a sin? Are you following the common sense logic of what I'm pointing out?
So does "faith" and "saved" and many other words, but I'm pretty sure that you would cry "foul" if I made the ridiculous claim that Paul means "to keep in a safe condition; safeguard" when he says "Since, therefore, we are now justified by his blood, much more shall we be saved by him from the wrath of God". Certainly "safeguard" is a valid definition of the word, but to claim that Paul means to safeguard HERE ON EARTH from "the wrath of God", would be to damage the meaning. Obviously Paul is talking about the afterlife here, but it IS a valid definition of the word "saved", right?
Why aren't you hearing what I've been saying? I said CONTEXT (and compatibility with other scripture) helps us understand what particular meaning any one word that has multiple definitions means.
This is what you are doing with the word "justify" in James. He OBVIOUSLY means justify in the same EXACT sense Paul means does.
Impossible. Not only does that make his teaching directly opposed to Paul's for the reason I've stated, but the CONTEXT shows us he means to SHOW your declaration of righteousness by what you do, not establish it: "I will show you my faith by what I do" (James 2:18 NIV1984). How can you ignore or write off this obvious clue to what he's means by 'justified'?
Deut. 15? Really? So, every SEVEN YEARS we are under the law of Moses when we help the poor? What about the other six? Deut. 15 deals with the year when the ground was to "rest".
That's it! Turn you Bible in. You can not be trusted to share what it says, lol.
The passage IN NO WAY says this generous giving to the poor and needy is only every seven years. In fact, it says to not be hesitant to give as the seventh year, the year for forgiving what you lend them, nears:
"...do not be hardhearted or tightfisted toward your poor brother. 8 Rather be openhanded and freely lend him whatever he needs. 9 Be careful not to harbor this wicked thought: “The seventh year, the year for canceling debts, is near,” so that you do not show ill will toward your needy brother and give him nothing." Deuteronomy 15:7-9 NIV1984)
The CANCELING of debts is every seven years, NOT THE GIVING TO THE NEEDY!
You must have more evidence that Paul and other NT writers tie "helping the poor" to "works of the law" besides Deut.15?
"27 Religion that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless is this: to look after orphans and widows in their distress and to keep oneself from being polluted by the world." (James 1:27 NIV1984)
Surely you would equate pure and faultless religion with righteous work? Looking after widows and orphans in there need and distress are ALSO commanded works of the law.
And don't forget about Leviticus 19:15 that says to not show favoritism to the rich. James uses that righteous work of the law as example of 'doing not just hearing' and how one is to have a faith that is alive and not dead and able to save, thus justifying a man. Works of the law and deeds done from faith certainly are the same thing in Paul's and James' letters.